An infinitely long, thin, conducting rod is
bent
in the form of semi-circular rings,
as shown in the figure. Now it is placed in a uniform magnetic field of magnitude
B
0
oriented perpendicular to the plane of the rings.
The radii of the successive half rings are as follows: R , 3 R 2 , 5 R 3 , 7 R 4 … ∞
Now if we rotate the Rod about the point O with constant angular velocity ω , find the magnitude of the induced emf developed in the rod.
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There is one more method to solve it namely that we can imagine rods being placed at the place of diameters and as it is a rigid body, we can find the successive increase in potential and sum it to get a G.P. But, we don't get the same answer. So, how is one method more "right" than the other. This solution or Leff one?
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That is also Correct Method ! And Also give same answer But In that case you can't use directly that :
E k = 2 B ω L k 2 .
Because when yo derived this relation by integration then You must have to put limits from the point about which system is rotated !!
For eg: Emf between K t h Rod is given by ;
E k = B ω ∫ a b x d x .
where :
a = 2 n = 1 ∑ n = K − 1 ( 2 n − 1 ) R n .
b = 2 n = 1 ∑ n = K ( 2 n − 1 ) R n .
So this also give same Answer!
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Yeah..that's what I was saying that we should arrive at the same answer using both the methods.....Probably made some mistake in calculations...
Thanks @Deepanshu Gupta for pointing out the key point in the alternate approach. I also did the same mistake.
My calculation !! Darn it !
The problem is good but overrated
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This system is Analogous To an rod rotating with angular velocity ' ω .' and has Length equal to sum of diameters of all rings. Let it's Length is 'L' then L = 2 ( R + 3 R 2 + 5 R 3 + 7 R 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ∞ ) ⟶ ( 1 ) R L = 2 ( R 2 + 3 R 3 + 5 R 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ∞ ) ⟶ ( 2 ) ⇒ ( 1 − R ) L = 2 ( R + 2 R 2 + 2 R 3 + 2 R 4 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . ∞ ) .
Now it is GP A f t e r S e c o n d T e r m so it's sum can be determined easily Therefore:
L = ( 1 − R ) 2 2 R ( 1 + R ) .
Now Total emf induced can be written as:
⇒ E i n d = 2 1 B ω ( L e f f 2 ) ⇒ L e f f = ( 1 − R ) 2 2 R ( 1 + R ) ⇒ E i n d = 2 B ω ( ( 1 − R ) 2 R ( 1 + R ) ) 2 .
Now Put The Values and Get The Answer.
A N S = 1 8 0 .