Consider an immovable bowl in the shape of a perfect hemisphere with radius R = 1 9 cm , as shown in the diagram below. Now, place a spherical marble with radius r = 1 cm on the edge of the bowl ( point A ) and let it roll.
How long does the marble take to reach the bottom of the bowl ( point B ) ?
Assume that g = 1 0 m / s 2 .
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Yes ,the integral can only do numerically.. But is it another way to do it by hand?
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You can't do it by hand, since it's an elliptic integral
Why do you use big R to calculate velocity v? center mass of marble are at distance (R-r) from bowl center. so I think we should use v = (R-r)*𐌘 to calculate Ekin.
I used the Pendulum approximation, where g is reduced as g / ((1 + 2/5 * R^2 / (R-r)^2)(R-r)). This gives T=0.253s.
Can someone tell me what I did wrong? I used energy to find a function for the speed of the center of mass of the ball, which was sqrt((18/7)sin(Φ)). I think this is right because if you divide sqrt(18/7) by .18, you get the same function for Φ' as in the above answer. I then tried to find the average value of the speed by integrating the speed function from 0 to pi/2 and dividing by pi/2 and dividing the distance travelled by the center of mass pi*.18/2 by that value but this gives an answer of .223s.
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To find the time you should find the average speed over time instead of over angle.
I used the old "back of an envelope" method. In freefall, it would take approximately 0.19 s to fall the 18 cm. Deflection by the bowl would make it take somewhat longer, but not greatly so. 0.3 s is therefore the sane answer. :)
Hahaha when common sense beats on Physics knowledge :P
How do you go from 0.19 to 0.3? I do not see it..
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Because it's multiple choice, and 0.3 was the next highest choice.
The ball travels along a circle of radius R = 0 . 1 8 m . It acts much like a pendulum of length R , but static friction is a retarding force. We analyze the forces:
Force of gravity m g ; the component parallel to the bowl is m g sin θ .
Normal force; has no parallel component.
Static friction F s ; directed parallel to the bowl, opposing the motion. It also generates a torque τ = F s r on the ball.
For the rotational acceleration we find (with I = 5 2 m r 2 for a solid sphere) α = I τ = 2 m r 5 F s . For the linear acceleration along the bowl we have a ∥ = g sin θ − m F s . Since the ball rolls without slipping, a ∥ = α r . Substituting the previous two equations allows to eliminate F s ; we find a ∥ = 7 5 g sin θ . Relating the linear motion along the bowl to the angle θ gives a = R θ ¨ ; thus θ ¨ = 7 5 R g sin θ . Compare this to the equation for a normal pendulum: θ ¨ = ( g / ℓ ) sin θ , it is easy to adjust the well-known equation for the period: T ≈ 2 π 5 g 7 R . This small-angle approximation is not exactly valid, since the ball's amplitude is 9 0 ∘ ; however, the increase in period is only 1 8 % . Finally, the answer to the problem is one-fourth of a full period: t ≈ 2 π 5 ⋅ 9 . 8 1 7 ⋅ 0 . 1 8 ≈ 0 . 3 s .
Actually the ball falls 18 cm = 0.1897 sec. The point mass of the ball moves 36xpi/4 = 28.27 cm, therefore T = (28.27/18)x0.1897 = 29.79 sec
Still close enough for government work
Simplistic terms: assume ball has mass of 1 gm. Ignore rotational KE. g = 1000 cm/sec^2 if ball were to fall 19 cm, t = sqrt(19/(0.5x1000)) = 0.1949 sec But ball moves 38xpi/4 = 9.5xpi = 29.85 cm Time elapsed = 0.1949 sec x(29.85/19) = 0.3062 sec q.e.d. (We ignored the KE from rotation which would a minimal amount to the elapsed time)
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That is rather simplistic. Your calculation assumes that the average speed is equal to that of free fall. This would be true if the ball slid down a straight ramp, but not on a curved ramp.
bad question. ball guaranteed to initially slip unless coeff. friction = 1/0
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It is worse: it requires the coefficient of friction to be infinitely large. ( μ > 1 is quite possible, though.)
I start this by calculating the amount of space that the ball travelled using a relation between the angle that the movement describes and the length of the circumference:
2 π ------- x
x= 2 ∗ π ∗ 2 2 ∗ π ∗ R ∗ π //
Now, I will use conservation of energy, since the ball hasn't lost any energy during his movement, all the potential energy got transformed into kinetic energy:
Now that I have velocity, I can go to the simplest formula of acceleration, and since the initial velocity is zero:
That's all we need for now. With these elements, I can use the kinematic equation of Torricelli, notice that we only need the initial and the final state of the object, avoiding the midterm situation:
The objective of this solution was to avoid the maximum amount of complicated calculum as possible, using the simpliest equations I've found. I hope everything is right, but please let me know if I made some mistakes ( or if it's everything wrong ). Also, I'm really sorry, but I am new here and I don't really know how to work with Latex, so I made the best I could out of the tools that I've found.
A better logic can be applied
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We consider the conservation of energy with 3 different contributions:
potential energy: E pot kinetic energy: E kin rotational energy: E rot E total = E pot + E kin + E rot = m g y = 2 1 m v 2 = 2 1 I ω 2 = 0
with mass m , velocity v = r ω = R ϕ ˙ , angular velocity ω and moment of inertia I = 5 2 m r 2 for a solid sphere. With y = − R sin ϕ follows
⇒ ⇒ ⇒ ⇒ E total d t d ϕ sin ( ϕ ) d ϕ ∫ 0 π / 2 sin ( ϕ ) d ϕ T = − m g R sin ϕ + 0 . 7 m R 2 ϕ ˙ 2 = 0 = 0 . 7 R g sin ( ϕ ) = 0 . 7 R g d t = 0 . 7 R g T ≈ 0 . 7 R g 2 . 6 2 2 = 0 . 3 0 2 s
The non-linear differential equation was solved by separation of variables and the specific integral was evaluated numerically (with the help of Wolfram Alpha).