Marching band conductor

Let f ( x ) f(x) be the unique polynomial that satisfies

f ( n ) = i = 1 n i 101 , for all positive integers n . f(n) = \sum_{i=1}^n i^{101 }, \mbox{ for all positive integers}\ n.

The leading coefficient of f ( n ) f(n) can be expressed as a b \frac{a}{b} , where a a and b b are positive coprime integers. What is the value of a + b a+b ?


The answer is 103.

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4 solutions

Let f ( x ) = a 0 + a 1 x + . . . + a k x k f(x) = a_0+a_1 x + ... + a_k x^k . Then f ( n ) = a 0 + . . . + a k n k f(n) = a_0 + ... + a_kn^k and f ( n 1 ) = a 0 + . . . + a k ( n 1 ) k f(n-1)=a_0+...+a_k(n-1)^k . f ( n ) f ( n 1 ) = n 101 = a k k n k 1 + . . . f(n)-f(n-1)=n^{101}=a_kkn^{k-1}+... . So we have k 1 = 101 k-1=101 and a k k = 1 a k = 1 102 a_kk=1 \implies a_k={1 \over 102} .

Moderator note:

Nicely done!

I was wondering if we can use the Pattern recognition here.

i = 1 n i = n ( n + 1 ) 2 \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^n i=\frac{n(n+1)}{2} The leading coefficient is 1/2.

i = 1 n i 2 = n ( n + 1 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) 6 \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^n i^2=\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6} The leading coefficient is 1/3.

i = 1 n i 3 = ( n ( n + 1 ) 2 ) 2 \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^n i^3=\left(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right)^2 The leading coefficient is 1/4.

From the pattern, the leading coefficient for i = 1 n i x \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^n i^x is 1/(x+1). Is this enough or do we need to be more rigorous?

Pranav Arora - 7 years, 8 months ago

I didn't get the third line...

Francesco Pozzetti - 7 years, 8 months ago

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Me too, how does the subtraction give a(k)kn^(k-1) ?

Jonathan Lowe - 7 years, 8 months ago

You may also see Faulhaber's formula

Achint Gupta - 7 years, 8 months ago

f ( n ) = n 101 + f ( n 1 ) , f ( 1 ) = 1 f(n) = n^{101} + f(n-1), f(1)=1 . We shall assume f(x) is a polynomial of degree 102. It follows that i = 0 102 a i n i = n 101 + i = 0 102 a i ( n 1 ) i \sum_{i=0}^{102} a_{i}n^{i} = n^{101}+\sum_{i=0}^{102} a_{i}(n-1)^{i} i = 0 102 a i ( n i ( n 1 ) i ) = n 101 \sum_{i=0}^{102} a_{i}(n^{i}-(n-1)^{i}) = n^{101} By the difference of powers formula n 101 n^{101} = i = 0 102 a i ( n i ( n i 1 ) ) ( n i 1 + n i 2 ( n 1 ) + . . . + n ( n 1 ) i 2 + ( n 1 ) i 1 ) =\sum_{i=0}^{102} a_{i}(n^{i}-(n^{i}-1))(n^{i-1}+n^{i-2}(n-1)+...+n(n-1)^{i-2}+(n-1)^{i-1}) = i = 0 102 a i ( n i 1 + n i 2 ( n 1 ) + . . . + n ( n 1 ) i 2 + ( n 1 ) i 1 ) =\sum_{i=0}^{102} a_{i}(n^{i-1}+n^{i-2}(n-1)+...+n(n-1)^{i-2}+(n-1)^{i-1}) In the i=102 term of the summation, we have a polynomial of degree 101 with a leading term of a i 102 n 101 a_{i}102n^{101} . As this is the only source of n 101 n^{101} in the summation, a i = 1 102 a_{i}=\frac{1}{102}

Why can we "assume f ( x ) f(x) is a polynomial of degree 102"?

What happens if your assumption doesn't hold?

Calvin Lin Staff - 7 years, 8 months ago

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Thanks, I should have mentioned at the end that if f ( n ) f(n) is of degree i i , there must be some n i 1 n^{i-1} terms left behind by the final summation above. Since only n 101 n^{101} is left over, this cannot be true. Also by the summation the degree can't be less than 102 as there will be no n 101 n^{101} terms at all.

Matthew Das Sarma - 7 years, 8 months ago
Jan J.
Oct 13, 2013

Note that i = 1 n ( ( i + 1 ) 102 i 102 ) = ( n + 1 ) 102 1 \sum_{i = 1}^n \bigg((i + 1)^{102} - i^{102}\bigg) = (n + 1)^{102} - 1 i.e. i = 1 n ( ( 102 1 ) i 101 + ) = n 102 + \sum_{i = 1}^n \bigg(\binom{102}{1} i^{101} + \dots \bigg) = n^{102} + \dots where the dots don't denote infinite sum but sum of terms which we don't care about, now just divide the equation by ( 102 1 ) = 102 \binom{102}{1} = 102 we get leading coefficient $$\frac{1}{102}$$ Hence $$a + b = \boxed{103}$$

Rawat Ji
Oct 11, 2013

use property of converting summation into integral u will get (n^102)/102 so ans is 1+102

Can you please elaborate?

Pranav Arora - 7 years, 8 months ago

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