Method to obtain 40%

In a certain examination 6 6 papers are set , and to each are assigned 100 100 marks as a maximum. The number of ways in which a candidate may obtain 40 % 40\% of the whole marks is 1 ! A ! { ( 24 B ) ! ( 24 C ) ! 6. ( D 44 ) ! ( 13 E ) ! + 15. ( 4 F ) ! ( 3 G ) ! } \frac { 1! }{ A! } \left\{ \frac { (24B)! }{ (24C)! } -6.\frac { (D44)! }{ (13E)! } +15.\frac { (4F)! }{ (3G)! } \right\} Find the value of A + B + C + D + E + F + G A+B+C+D+E+F+G

Details and Assumptions :

A , B , C , D , E , F , G A,B,C,D,E,F,G are digits from 1 1 to 9 9


The answer is 31.

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2 solutions

Danish Mohammed
Mar 27, 2015

Here's my solution

Let the marks scored in the i i th paper be x i x_i for i = 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 i=1,2,3,4,5,6

Then we have x 1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + x 5 + x 6 = 240 x_1+x_2+x_3+x_4+x_5+x_6 = 240 since 240 is 40% of the total marks (600)

We also have the constraints 0 x i 100 0 \leq x_i \leq 100 for i = 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 i=1,2,3,4,5,6

I denote the coefficient of x r x^r as ( ( x r ) ) ((x^r)) and the binomial coefficient as C ( n , r ) = n ! r ! ( n r ) ! C(n,r) = \frac{n!}{r!(n-r)!}

Now the number of integral solutions of the equations with the constraints is

( ( x 240 ) ) ((x^{240})) in ( 1 + x + x 2 + x 3 + + x 100 ) 6 (1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + \dots + x^{100})^6

= ( ( x 240 ) ) =((x^{240})) in ( 1 x 101 ) 6 ( 1 x ) 6 (1-x^{101})^6 (1 - x)^{-6} using the formula for the sum of a geometric sequence

= ( ( x 240 ) ) =((x^{240})) in ( C ( 6 , 0 ) C ( 6 , 1 ) x 101 + C ( 6 , 2 ) x 202 ) ( 1 x ) 6 (C(6,0) - C(6,1)x^{101} + C(6,2) x^{202})(1-x)^{-6} . Using the binomial theorem. The powers greater than 240 can be left out since they do not contribute to the coefficient

= ( ( x 240 ) ) =((x^{240})) in C ( 6 , 0 ) ( 1 x ) 6 ( ( x 139 ) ) C(6,0)(1-x)^{-6} - ((x^{139})) in C ( 6 , 1 ) ( 1 x ) 6 + ( ( x 38 ) ) C(6,1)(1-x)^{-6} + ((x^{38})) in C ( 6 , 2 ) ( 1 x ) 6 C(6,2)(1-x)^{-6}

= C ( 6 , 0 ) C ( 245 , 240 ) C ( 6 , 1 ) C ( 144 , 139 ) + C ( 6 , 2 ) C ( 43 , 38 ) =C(6,0)C(245,240) - C(6,1)C(144,139) + C(6,2)C(43,38) from the binomial theorem for a negative power

Simplifying we get, the number of ways

= 1 ! 5 ! ( 245 ! 240 ! 6 144 ! 139 ! + 15 43 ! 38 ! ) = \frac{1!}{5!} (\frac{245!}{240!} - 6 \frac{144!}{139!} + 15 \frac{43!}{38!})

And we get A = 5 , B = 5 , C = 0 , D = 1 , E = 9 , F = 3 , G = 8 A=5,B=5,C=0,D=1,E=9,F=3,G=8

and A + B + C + D + E + F + G = 31 A+B+C+D+E+F+G=\boxed{31}

This is solution uses a technique of associating the coefficients of a series with a combinatorial meaning.

This problem might be solved using the inclusion and exclusion principle, however, I haven't been able to think of how to do this :( If somebody does, please post the solution as I'd love to know how to use the inclusion and exclusion principle. :)

Lost 400 400 points just because of a silly mistake. The general term for ( 1 x ) n (1 - x)^{- n} is ( n + r 1 r ) {n + r - 1\choose r} but I took it to be ( n + r 1 r 1 ) {n + r - 1\choose r - 1}

Ankit Kumar Jain - 5 years, 9 months ago

Thanks @Danish Mohammed for the solution

Utkarsh Bansal - 6 years, 2 months ago

You must write that the variables are digits from 0 to 9 not 1 to 9 as C=0. I got a little confused when I got C=0 and checked my method twice.

Archit Agrawal - 4 years, 3 months ago
Sibasish Mishra
Jan 13, 2018

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