Consider an Integral
I = ∫ 0 π / 2 ∣ cos x − k x ∣ d x .
If for some positive Real value of k this integral can be minimized .
if that value of k is expressed as
π a ( cos ( a π ) ) .
Then Find a 2 ??
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It's a beautiful question , Deepanshu bhaiyya
I repeatedly entered the value of a instead of a 2 and got it wrong
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Yeah I got it wrong in first attempt too for the same thing but realized it and got it correct in the second attempt
Same thing... got frustrated and entered 8 all the 3 times
Consider the equation, ∫ 0 2 π ∣ c o s x − k x ∣ d x
Let us assume it is negative from 0 to some h and then becomes positive from h to 2 π
Then it can be split as
∫ 0 h ( k x − c o s x ) d x + ∫ h 2 π ( c o s x − k x ) d x
Thus effectively removing modulus sign,
now differentiating equation with respect to k and equating it to 0, (for extrema)
(to determine whether its maxima or minima, check yourself)
We get
∫ 0 h ( x ) d x + ∫ h 2 π ( − x ) d x
which gives
h = 8 π
Now at x=h, cosx-kx=0
so
k = h c o s ( h ) = π 8 c o s ( 8 π )
which a=8 and its square as 64
Oh That's cool. atleast 5 times better than me . Thanks for sharing with us
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I = ∫ 0 π / 2 ∣ cos x − k x ∣ d x .
Diagram Let point P ( α , cos α ) on curve y = c o s ( x )
So
k α = cos α k = α cos α .
I = ∫ 0 α ( cos x − k x ) d x + ∫ α π / 2 ( k x − cos x ) d x .
Now after integrating it we get function of I in term's of α
I ( α ) = 2 sin α − 2 α cos α + 2 α cos α ( 4 π 2 − α 2 ) − 1 .
d α d [ I ( α ) ] = 0 .
d α d [ I ( α ) ] = 0 tan ( α ) = α − 1 × ( r e j e c t e d ∵ α > 0 & tan ( α ) > 0 ) o r α = 8 π .
⇒ k = π 8 ( cos ( 8 π ) ) ⇒ a = 8 ⇒ a 2 = 6 4 .
Q.E.D