There are n positive real numbers a 1 , a 2 , a 3 , . . . , a n . Will the following inequality hold always?
a 1 n + 1 + a 2 n + 1 + a 3 n + 1 + . . . + a n n + 1 ≥ a 1 a 2 a 3 . . . a n ( a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n )
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By Power-Mean inequality, we have
n a 1 n + 1 + a 2 n + 1 + a 3 n + 1 + . . . + a n n + 1 ≥ ( n a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n ) n + 1 = ( n a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n ) n ( n a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n ) ≥ [ ( a 1 a 2 a 3 . . . a n ) 1 / n ] n ( a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n ) = a 1 a 2 a 3 . . . . . . a n ( a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + . . . + a n )
Hence, the given inequality will always hold.
note: AM-GM inequality was used between the 3rd and 4th parts of the above inequality.