Misunderstanding Euclid's argument

A common flawed presentation of Euclid's proof of the infinitude of primes is as follows:

Assume there are only a finite number of primes p 1 , p 2 , , p n p_1,p_2,\ldots,p_n . Let N N be the product of all of those primes, add to it 1 1 and you get a new prime number since it isn't divisible by any of the primes we listed at first. Contradiction! \Rightarrow\Leftarrow Therefore, there is an infinite number of primes.

Let q 1 , q 2 , q 3 , q_1, q_2, q_3, \ldots be the list of all primes (in ascending order). Your mission is to find the smallest value of q 1 q 2 q 3 q n + 1 q_1 q_2 q_3 \ldots q_n + 1 that is not a prime.


The answer is 30031.

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3 solutions

Using numerical methods, one can find such number to be: 30031 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 11 × 13 + 1 30031=2×3×5×7×11×13+1 which isn't a prime since it can be factored as: 59 × 509 59\times509 .

A side note: What Euclid actually proved is that if P \mathcal P is any finite set of primes (which might or might not be the first n n primes) then the prime factors of ( P ) + 1 \displaystyle\left(\prod \mathcal P\right)+1 are not in P \mathcal P . See here for a constructive overview of the proof.

I have edited your question for clarity, given the number of comments / disputes.

For example, you did not clarify that p 1 , p 2 , p_1, p_2, \ldots must be the list of all the primes in order.

Calvin Lin Staff - 6 years, 11 months ago

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I still find the wording a bit ambiguous, (I tried 4 4 and 15 15 as answers before trying 30031 30031 ). Perhaps something like "Let q 1 , q 2 , . . . . , q n q_{1}, q_{2}, ...., q_{n} be the list of the first n n primes in ascending order" would make it crystal clear.

This is a great 'gateway' question for learning about primes. I can picture it on the Brilliant facebook page. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 6 months ago

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So whats the property of prime we learn from here?

U Z - 6 years, 3 months ago

Absolutely fantastic problem. I loved solving this. :D

Finn Hulse - 7 years, 1 month ago

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Glad you liked it! :-)

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It really is fantastic. :D

Finn Hulse - 7 years, 1 month ago

is there a method to find 30031 or is it just by trial

Ashutosh Panigrahy - 7 years, 1 month ago

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Just by trial. It is mentioned in some books. If you remember this then it's quite good. For example, it is there in the book Elementary Number Theory by David M.Burton

Raushan Sharma - 5 years, 12 months ago

how about (2x7)+1 which is 15? you did'nt say it must in order so my answer is valid

Hafizh Ahsan Permana - 6 years, 11 months ago

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Let q1,q2,q3,...,qn is list of ALL primes in ASCENDING ORDER Dont you see that ?

Raden Rifqi Rahman - 3 years, 6 months ago

meticulous answer and a great question , I loved it

Yeabkalu Assefa - 6 years, 1 month ago

Excellant.I was also clubbed at first although having used the proof earlier. Actually should have unerstood that N+1 is either the prime next to p n or is divisible by a prime >p n.Thus it is proved. Brilliant,

Chandrachur Banerjee - 6 years, 11 months ago

Trail and error ? Please explain the detailed procedure. By what numerical methods you solved this ?

Venkata Karthik Bandaru - 6 years, 3 months ago

Could you reword the problem? It's not completely clear you need to input 30031 instead of 6(the number of primes you need to multiply).

Alexander Baumgartner - 5 years, 2 months ago

If it's a true geometric series that doesn't stop then were not talking about primes anymore

Ryan Matthew - 3 years, 4 months ago

But isn’t there a smaller answer where 3 x 5 x 7 + 1 = 106 which is not prime

Sam Leonard - 3 years, 2 months ago

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The product of primes needs to start with the first prime, namely 2 2 , so your example doesn't qualify.

Brian Charlesworth - 3 years, 2 months ago

Great proof. Just a little question: if Euclid proved that for the product of some primes plus 1, the prime factors of that number were not those initial primes, then it is proven that there are infinitely many primes, isn't it? I mean, you just have to assume that the product p1·p2·p3···pn contains every prime (thinking they are finite), so when you add 1 you know you will have a new number whose prime factors are not p1, or p2, or p3, etc. So there's a number that either has a different prime factor, or is itself a prime. In any case, you would have "found" a new prime number, so it is a contraction, and they're, indeed, proven to be infinite.

Andy Arteaga - 2 years, 11 months ago

I didn't know this was the actual proof. I saw a variation once: Proof by contradiction Let q be any prime number Assume q is the largest prime Take q! And add 1 and call it n Then this number is not divisible by any natural number < n. So n must prime or a product of primes that are greater than n Which means q is not the largest prime. QED

Maarten van Helden - 2 years, 11 months ago

This is a truly simple and elegant proof!

James Schuller - 2 years, 3 months ago
Ariel Gershon
May 10, 2014

Technically, the smallest such N + 1 N+1 is 4, because you can assume that 3 is the only prime number. You should clarify the question.

We cannot assume 3 only, because int he question it is told that first we have to assume there are only finite number of primes from p1 to pn, In this we know that p1 is 2(first prime number). So if we take pn as 3, then p1 to pn will be (2,3). If we take pn as 11 (2,3,5,7,11)...etc...

SREERAG RK - 7 years ago

No, N N is a product of primes, thus your example is false since if you consider primes up to 3 you will get 2 3 + 1 = 6 + 1 = 7 2\cdot3+1=6+1=7 which is a prime.

I don't think you understand the question. It doesn't allow for counter-factual assumptions. q 1 is 2, q 2 is 3, etc... You're mission is to find the least n such that..etc. etc.

Richard Desper - 4 years, 7 months ago

2*7 = 14, 14 + 1 = 15 not prime. I am missing something here

Bill Woolson - 4 years, 4 months ago

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The fact that 3 & 5 are prime

Justin M - 3 years, 4 months ago

2 isn't really prime get over it

Ryan Matthew - 3 years, 4 months ago

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Yes it is, it has only 2 factors, 2 and 1.

Andreas Walexon - 5 months, 1 week ago

N=3 is a product of primes, namely the prime 3 (one number still counts as a product). But my point is, the question doesn't say "primes up to p n p_n ". It doesn't even say the primes have to be in order from least to greatest. Therefore, using N = 3 is valid.

Ariel Gershon - 7 years, 1 month ago

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are you assuming 3 as a product in this context- 1*3? 1 is not a prime number at all...the first prime number is 2. Anyway, the question has been edited and you have to take the prime numbers in order.

Deepika Pandit - 6 years, 11 months ago

Use any 4k+3 you want, it'll hurt you just the same

Ryan Matthew - 3 years, 4 months ago
K T
Aug 10, 2019

I do not see why the given presentation of the proof is flawed, it is correct. We find a number 30031 which is not divisible by any of the listed primes. And since the presumption was that they were all existing primes, that presumption must be false. If the finite list contains all primes, the number cannot be composite. The facts that there is no finite list of all primes, and that 30031=59×509 really is composite do not compromise this reasoning. No one claimed that this method would always generate a new prime from a finite subset of all primes!

30031 = 59x509 is the correct prime factorization.

a t - 2 months, 3 weeks ago

Indeed, thanks I will correct it. Funny mistake by me!

K T - 2 months, 3 weeks ago

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