More fun in 2015, Part 15

Algebra Level 1

{ a n = a n 1 a n 2 b n 1 b n 2 b n = b n 1 a n 2 + a n 1 b n 2 \large \begin{cases} {a_n=a_{n-1}a_{n-2}-b_{n-1}b_{n-2} } \\ { b_n=b_{n-1}a_{n-2}+a_{n-1}b_{n-2} } \end{cases}

Two sequences a n a_n and b n b_n begin with values a 1 = b 1 = a 2 = b 2 = 1 a_1=b_1=a_2=b_2=1 and satisfy the recursive relations above for n > 2 n>2 .

Find b 2015 a 2015 \large \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} .


The answer is 1.

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2 solutions

Harry Ray
Jun 1, 2016

With problems like this we generally look to find a closed form for the sequences a n a_n and b n b_n . However, since we need only find b 2015 a 2015 \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} it can sometimes be easier to find a closed form for the sequence b n a n \frac{b_n}{a_n} . We begin with the recurrence relation: b n a n = b n 1 a n 2 + a n 1 b n 2 a n 1 a n 2 b n 1 b n 2 = b n 1 a n 1 + b n 2 a n 2 1 b n 1 b n 2 a n 1 a n 2 \begin{aligned} \frac{b_n}{a_n} &= \frac{b_{n-1}a_{n-2} + a_{n-1}b_{n-2}}{a_{n-1}a_{n-2} - b_{n-1}b_{n-2}} \\ &= \frac{\frac{b_{n-1}}{a_{n-1}} + \frac{b_{n-2}}{a_{n-2}}}{1 - \frac{b_{n-1}b_{n-2}}{a_{n-1}a_{n-2}}} \end{aligned} This has the structure of the angle sum formula for tan \tan . Since the range of tan \tan is R \mathbb{R} , let b n a n = tan θ n \frac{b_n}{a_n} = \tan\theta_n , and then we have: b n a n = tan θ n = tan θ n 1 + tan θ n 2 1 tan θ n 1 tan θ n 2 = tan ( θ n 1 + θ n 2 ) \begin{aligned} \frac{b_n}{a_n} = \tan\theta_n &= \frac{\tan\theta_{n-1} + \tan\theta_{n-2}}{1 - \tan\theta_{n-1}\tan\theta_{n-2}} \\ &= \tan(\theta_{n-1} + \theta_{n-2}) \end{aligned} That is, the sequence θ n = θ n 1 + θ n 2 \theta_n = \theta_{n-1} + \theta_{n-2} , and since b 1 a 1 = b 2 a 2 = 1 \frac{b_1}{a_1} = \frac{b_2}{a_2} = 1 this sequence starts with θ 1 = θ 2 = π 4 \theta_1 = \theta_2 = \frac{\pi}{4} . This satisfies the same recurrence relation as the Fibonacci numbers, and so θ n = F n π 4 \theta_n = F_n\frac{\pi}{4} , where F n F_n is the nth Fibonacci number.

Thus b 2015 a 2015 = tan ( F 2015 π 4 ) \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} = \tan\left(F_{2015}\frac{\pi}{4}\right) . Since tan \tan has a period of π \pi , we need only calculate F 2015 m o d 4 F_{2015} \bmod 4 . The Fibonacci numbers, modulo 4 are: 1 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 1 , 0 , 1 , 1 , 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 0, 1, 1, \ldots Since this sequence is periodic with period 6, and 2015 5 ( m o d 6 ) 2015 \equiv 5 \pmod 6 , we have F 2015 m o d 4 = 1 F_{2015} \bmod 4 = 1 . Thus: b 2015 a 2015 = tan π 4 = 1 \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} = \tan\frac{\pi}{4} = \boxed{1}

I did not understand

Revanth Kanamarlapudi - 2 years, 1 month ago

Great problem and explanation!

Zain Majumder - 2 years, 1 month ago

mention[1195613:Otto Bretscher]

Agent T - 1 week, 1 day ago
Ivan Koswara
Aug 29, 2015

Consider the sequence { c n } \{c_n\} formed as c n = a n + b n i c_n = a_n + b_n i (where i i is the imaginary unit). Observe that

c n + 2 = a n + 2 + b n + 2 i = ( a n + 1 a n b n + 1 b n ) + ( b n + 1 a n + a n + 1 b n ) i = a n + 1 a n + ( b n + 1 i ) ( b n i ) + a n ( b n + 1 i ) + a n + 1 ( b n i ) = ( a n + 1 + b n + 1 i ) ( a n + b n i ) = c n + 1 c n \begin{aligned} c_{n+2} &= a_{n+2} + b_{n+2} i \\ &= (a_{n+1} a_n - b_{n+1} b_n) + (b_{n+1} a_n + a_{n+1} b_n) i \\ &= a_{n+1} a_n + (b_{n+1} i) (b_n i) + a_n (b_{n+1} i) + a_{n+1} (b_n i) \\ &= (a_{n+1} + b_{n+1} i) (a_n + b_n i) \\ &= c_{n+1} c_n \end{aligned}

This looks like the Fibonacci recurrence, but in product form (the ( n + 2 ) (n+2) -th term is the product of the ( n + 1 ) (n+1) -th term and the n n -th term instead of their sum). In fact, since c 1 = c 2 = ( 1 + i ) c_1 = c_2 = (1+i) , we can show by simple induction that c n = ( 1 + i ) F n c_n = (1+i)^{F_n} , where F n F_n is the n n -th Fibonacci number. (The base case n = 1 , 2 n = 1, 2 is trivial; c n + 2 = c n + 1 c n = ( 1 + i ) F n + 1 ( 1 + i ) F n = ( 1 + i ) F n + 1 + F n = ( 1 + i ) F n + 2 c_{n+2} = c_{n+1} c_n = (1+i)^{F_{n+1}} (1+i)^{F_n} = (1+i)^{F_{n+1}+F_n} = (1+i)^{F_{n+2}} .)

All complex numbers can be represented in polar coordinates as r cis θ = r cos θ + r sin θ i r \text{cis } \theta = r \cos \theta + r \sin \theta \cdot i for suitable r , c r, c . Note that c 2015 = a 2015 + b 2015 i c_{2015} = a_{2015} + b_{2015} i , thus a 2015 = r cos θ , b 2015 = r sin θ a_{2015} = r \cos \theta, b_{2015} = r \sin \theta , and so b 2015 a 2015 = r sin θ r cos θ = tan θ \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} = \frac{r \sin \theta}{r \cos \theta} = \tan \theta . Thus it suffices to determine the argument θ \theta . Moreover, since we only care about tan θ \tan \theta and tan \tan is periodic modulo π = 18 0 \pi = 180^\circ , it suffices to compute θ m o d 18 0 \theta \mod 180^\circ . (Here a m o d b a \mod b means a real r r , 0 r < b 0 \le r < b , such that a r b \frac{a-r}{b} is an integer. Also, I use degrees instead of radians because it's easier to type. Sheesh.)

For a complex number z = r cis θ z = r \text{ cis } \theta , remember that z n = r n cis n θ z^n = r^n \text{ cis } n \theta . In our case, c 2015 = ( 1 + i ) F 2015 = ( 2 cis 4 5 ) F 2015 c_{2015} = (1+i)^{F_{2015}} = (\sqrt{2} \text{ cis } 45^\circ)^{F_{2015}} , so c 2015 = ( 2 ) F 2015 cis F 2015 4 5 c_{2015} = (\sqrt{2})^{F_{2015}} \text{ cis } F_{2015} \cdot 45^\circ . Thus θ = F 2015 4 5 \theta = F_{2015} \cdot 45^\circ .

We need to compute θ m o d 18 0 \theta \mod 180^\circ . However, we know that 4 5 45^\circ divides θ \theta , thus we can move it out:

θ m o d 18 0 = ( F 2015 4 5 ) m o d ( 4 4 5 ) = 4 5 ( F 2015 m o d 4 ) \begin{aligned} \theta \mod 180^\circ &= (F_{2015} \cdot 45^\circ) \mod (4 \cdot 45^\circ) \\ &= 45^\circ \cdot (F_{2015} \mod 4) \end{aligned}

Thus it suffices to compute F 2015 m o d 4 F_{2015} \mod 4 .

Observe that the Fibonacci sequence modulo 4 4 is periodic with period 6 6 : 1 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 1 , 0 , 1 , 1 , 1, 1, 2, 3, 1, 0, 1, 1, \ldots . After 1 , 1 1, 1 occurs again, the entire sequence is guaranteed to be periodic, since the Fibonacci sequence only depends on the previous two terms. Thus we know that F n + 6 F n ( m o d 4 ) F_{n+6} \equiv F_n \pmod 4 .

This way, we know that 2015 = 335 6 + 5 2015 = 335 \cdot 6 + 5 , so F 2015 F 5 1 ( m o d 4 ) F_{2015} \equiv F_{5} \equiv 1 \pmod 4 . Thus θ = 4 5 1 = 4 5 \theta = 45^\circ \cdot 1 = 45^\circ , and b 2015 a 2015 = tan θ = tan 4 5 = 1 \frac{b_{2015}}{a_{2015}} = \tan \theta = \tan 45^\circ = \boxed{1} .

Moderator note:

Great clear explanation! What motivated considering complex numbers?

Challenge Master: I saw that if we have a n = cos θ n , b n = sin θ n a_n = \cos \theta_n, b_n = \sin \theta_n , then the equations are conveniently condensed into cos θ n + 2 = cos ( θ n + 1 + θ n ) \cos \theta_{n+2} = \cos (\theta_{n+1} + \theta_n) and sin θ n + 2 = sin ( θ n + 1 + θ n ) \sin \theta_{n+2} = \sin (\theta_{n+1} + \theta_n) . Of course, since cos 2 θ + sin 2 θ = 1 \cos^2 \theta + \sin^2 \theta = 1 but 1 2 + 1 2 = 2 1^2 + 1^2 = 2 , I can't just apply this, so I need to tweak it. Initially my idea was along the lines of a n = c x n a_n = c x_n for suitable c c , but it doesn't work either... until I'm reminded that complex numbers also involve cosines and sines.

Ivan Koswara - 5 years, 9 months ago

Exactly! Thank you for the clear and detailed explanation!

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 9 months ago

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Nice recursion exercise, Sir Otto! I'm surprised it's rated as Level-1?!

tom engelsman - 1 week, 1 day ago

Find first 5 or 10 terms of both the sequences. You will get the same terms on 5th and 10th position. Brilliantly made😆 sequence.

Shubham Poddar - 2 years, 4 months ago

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