d ∣ n ∑ μ ( d n ) f ( d ) = n
If f ( d ) is an arithmetic function such that the equation above holds for all positive integers n , find f ( 2 0 1 5 ) .
Notation: μ denotes the Möbius function .
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Yes, this is a concise solution for those of us who know about Mobius inversion! (+1)
Here is a solution for those who know the dirichlet convolution , ( f ∗ g ) ( n ) = ∑ d ∣ n f ( n / d ) g ( d ) . This product turns out to be associative, with an identity e given by e ( 1 ) = 1 , e ( n ) = 0 for n > 1 . It is easy to see that I ∗ μ = e where I ( n ) = 1 for all n ; this simply means that ∑ d ∣ n μ ( d ) = 0 for n > 1 .
We are given the equation i d = μ ∗ f , the identity function. To solve for f , let's multiply both sides with I to find I ∗ i d = I ∗ μ ∗ f = e ∗ f = f , meaning that f ( n ) = ∑ d ∣ n d , the sum of all divisors of n , a multiplicative function.
Since f ( p ) = p + 1 for primes, we have f ( 2 0 1 5 ) = f ( 5 ∗ 1 3 ∗ 3 1 ) = 6 ∗ 1 4 ∗ 3 2 = 2 6 8 8 .
For prime powers we have f ( p m ) = 1 + p + p 2 + . . . + p m = p − 1 p m + 1 − 1 .
Good approach. We are using the Mobius inversion to calculate the function f.
now that i have learn about the Dirichlet product, i understand how awesome this solution is!!
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Could you add a wiki to help explain the Dirichlet convolution?
First, it is easy to see that f ( 1 ) = 1
Then we have f ( p ) = p + 1 for every prime p because μ ( p ) f ( 1 ) + μ ( 1 ) f ( p ) = p , that means f ( p ) − f ( 1 ) = p
Next we will prove that if n = p 1 ∗ p 2 ∗ . . . ∗ p k with p i are prime, then f ( n ) = f ( p 1 ) ∗ f ( p 2 ) ∗ . . . ∗ f ( p k )
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f ( n ) − ∑ p i ∣ n f ( p i n ) + ∑ p i , p j ∣ n f ( p i ∗ p j n ) − . . . + . . . = p 1 ∗ p 2 ∗ . . . ∗ p k = [ f ( p 1 ) − 1 ] [ f ( p 2 ) − 1 ] . . . [ f ( p k ) − 1 ]
When expand the RHS, all the sum in LHS will be cancel out and that leaves f ( n ) = f ( p 1 ) ∗ f ( p 2 ) ∗ . . . ∗ f ( p k )
Apply that to 2015 we have f ( 2 0 1 5 ) = f ( 5 ) ∗ f ( 1 3 ) ∗ . . . ∗ f ( 3 1 ) = 6 ∗ 1 4 ∗ 3 2 = 2 6 8 8
Note: In general, if n = p 1 α 1 p 2 α 2 . . . p k α k :
f ( n ) = ∏ i = 1 k p i − 1 p i α i + 1 − 1 (sum of all divisors of n)
Yes, this is a clear, straightforward approach! (+1) Can you show us how you derive the formula for f ( n ) in the last line? It seems like your earlier work applies to square-free n only.
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Well, I don't have any proof that f(n) is multiplicative given only your equation without transform f(n) to sum of all divisors of n
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In my solution, I show that f is multiplicative by writing it as the Dirichlet convolution of two multiplicative functions.
i am quite certain this function is multiplicative, but i dont have proof(i was trying but it became too lengthy). lets use easy method:
put n=1 to get f(1)=1. now put n=5) to find f ( 5 ) − f ( 1 ) = 5 , from this we find f ( 5 ) = 6 . similarly we have f ( 1 3 ) = 1 4 , f ( 3 1 ) = 3 2 . now put n = 6 5 = 1 3 ∗ 5 , we get: f ( 6 5 ) − f ( 5 ) − f ( 1 3 ) + f ( 1 ) = 6 5 . from this we get f ( 6 5 ) = 8 4 , it seems so multiplicative! similarly we have f ( 1 5 5 ) = 1 9 2 , f ( 4 0 3 ) = 4 4 8 . put n=2015 to get that [f(2015)-f(65)-f(155)-f(403)+f(5)+f(13)+f(31)-f(1)=2015). plug in values to find f ( 2 0 1 5 ) = 2 6 8 8 . as for wether a function like this exists or not, try f ( n ) = n ∏ p ∣ n ( 1 + p 1 ) . this is just a function satisfying, but any other function satisfying the equation will also have f(2015)=2688.
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Note that if d g = n then the expression is equivalent to g ∣ n ∑ μ ( g ) f ( n / g ) which by Mobius Inversion, means that f ( n ) = d ∣ n ∑ d or the sum of the divisors of n . The answer follows by summing the divisors of 2015.