More fun in 2015, Part 8

Algebra Level 5

How many polynomials p ( x ) p(x) with integer coefficients (PICs) divide x 2015 1 x^{2015}-1 , in the sense that x 2015 1 = p ( x ) q ( x ) x^{2015}-1=p(x)q(x) for some PIC?

Here is some background info for those who have not studied this kind of number theory yet:

For any positive integer n n , we define the cyclotomic polynomial Φ n ( x ) = ( x w ) \Phi_n(x)=\prod(x-w) , where the product is taken over all primitive n th n^\text{th} roots of unity, w w . We are told that Φ n ( x ) \Phi_n(x) is a PIC and that it cannot be factored into two PICs of positive degree ( Φ n ( x ) \big(\Phi_n(x) is "irreducible" ) . \big).


Extra-credit question: Explain why the cyclotomic polynomials have integer coefficients.


The answer is 512.

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1 solution

Patrick Corn
May 28, 2015

The second paragraph of the question implies that the factorization of x n 1 x^n-1 into irreducibles is x n 1 = d n Φ d ( x ) x^n-1 = \prod_{d|n} \Phi_d(x) and 2015 2015 has 8 8 positive integer divisors.

Since x 2015 1 x^{2015}-1 factors as a product of 8 distinct irreducible integer monic polynomials, the answer is 2 8 2 = 512 2^8 \cdot 2 = \fbox{512} , where that last factor of 2 2 is due to multiplying each monic factor by the units ± 1 \pm 1 .

Exactly! Thanks! (+1)

Small correction: 2015 has 8 positive integer divisors (and 16 integer divisors)

For the benefit of other readers, would you mind explaining, in layman's terms, why the cyclotomic polynomials have integer coefficients.

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

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I fail to understand. Isn't it that x^2015-1 is the 2015th cyclotomic polynomial???????????? these 2 shares all 2015 roots and moreover have same coefficient of x^2015(=1). Please explain to me.

Debjani Banerjee - 6 years ago

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Please anyone explain

Debjani Banerjee - 6 years ago

The cyclotomic polynomial involves only the primitive roots of unity, e 2 k π i / 2015 e^{2k\pi{i}/2015} , where k k is co-prime with 2015 2015 . Thus the degree of Φ 2015 ( x ) \Phi_{2015}(x) is ϕ ( 2015 ) = 1440 \phi(2015)=1440 . Each 2015-th roots of unity is a primitive root of unity for some divisor d d of 2015, so that x 2015 1 = d 2015 Φ d ( x ) x^{2015-1}=\prod_{d|2015}\Phi_d(x) , as Patrick states. Since 2015 has eight positive divisors d d , there will be eight such (irreducible) factors Φ d ( x ) \Phi_d(x) .

Otto Bretscher - 6 years ago

Edited, thanks.

Patrick Corn - 5 years, 8 months ago

Almost got caught out by the "negative" divisors.

Loving these probems by Otto. They are so beautiful and always leave me wanting to learn more about them.

Isaac Buckley - 6 years ago

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I got caught by the negative ones

Julian Poon - 5 years, 8 months ago

I too am confused. I challenge you to list the 8 divisors. The prime factorization is (5)(13)(31)

anony usery - 4 years, 4 months ago

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The 8 positive integer divisors of 2015? Sure: 1, 5, 13, 31, 65, 155, 403, 2015.

Patrick Corn - 4 years, 4 months ago

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@Patrick Corn OK, I see each of the unique divisors d creates a partition over the integers n less than or equal to 2015 because n with gcd(n,2015) falls in one class d, and each polynomial degree i for any integer will have a gcd(i, d)=1 and thus be a primitive root of the non reducible cyclotomic polynomial. I still don't see why multiplying these primitive roots in each factor would always yield integer coefficients (Part b of the question) but I can probably find that in one of my text books. @Debjani Banerjee I recommend that you read the second half of math.bard.edu/belk/math318/CyclotomicPolynomials.pdf and Jones Elementary number theory chapters 5 and 6, especially proofs of theorems 5.8 and 6.5 before this makes sense.

anonhy usera - 4 years, 4 months ago

i'm still confused it's prime factorisation is (5).(13).(31) and so , by Euler's phi function it should have 1440 cyclotomic(PIC) divisors .....help me out

veeresh pandey - 3 years, 4 months ago

But why do cyclotomic polynomials have integer coefficients? And is it coincidence that the 105th is the first with a coefficient that is not 0, 1, or -1?

Alvann Paredes Dy - 3 months, 3 weeks ago

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The answer to your first question is in the wiki . The answer to your second question is that it turns out that Φ n ( x ) \Phi_n(x) has coefficients 0 , ± 1 0,\pm 1 for any n n of the form 2 a p b q c , 2^a p^b q^c, where p , q p,q are odd primes. (This is due to Migotti, from the late 19th century. I am not sure how elementary the proof is.)

Patrick Corn - 3 months, 3 weeks ago

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thank you!

Alvann Paredes Dy - 3 months ago

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