k = 2 ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( − 1 ) k ( k 2 0 1 6 ) k 2 0 1 5 = ?
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Yes, this is a clear and solid way to do it! (+1) I often use this kind of relation in linear algebra, when dealing with Vandermonde Matrices, for example, here
We can interpret this combinatorially. Note that if we shift the index so that it starts from k = 0 , by the principle of inclusion and exclusion, this is equivalent to arranging 2015 balls into a row of 2016 boxes such that each box has a positive number of balls. This is obviously zero. Thus, the desired expression is just ( 1 2 0 1 6 ) = 2 0 1 6 .
Yes, exactly! (+1) That's where I got the formula from. For those members who are not familiar with this stuff, can you give a good reference?
Your solution takes care of this one too!
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i am not good in combo so i use a calculus approach. consider the summation k = 0 ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( − 1 ) 2 0 1 6 − k ( x + 1 ) k ( k 2 0 1 6 ) = x 2 0 1 6 we get this by the binomial theorem. we d.w.r.x and multiply both sides with (x+1) to get k = 0 ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( − 1 ) 2 0 1 6 − k ( x + 1 ) k k ( k 2 0 1 6 ) = 2 0 1 6 x 2 0 1 5 ( x + 1 ) we repeat this 2015 times! we dont have to do that. we just easily notice that the polynomial formed after 2015 differentiation will not have any constant term or at x=0. that will be zero. basically k = 0 ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( − 1 ) 2 0 1 6 − k k 2 0 1 5 ( k 2 0 1 6 ) = 0 or k = 2 ∑ 2 0 1 6 ( − 1 ) 2 0 1 6 − k k 2 0 1 5 ( k 2 0 1 6 ) = 2 0 1 6