More fun in 2016, Part 14

k = 2 2016 ( 1 ) k ( 2016 k ) k 2015 = ? \large \sum_{k=2}^{2016}(-1)^k{2016 \choose k}k^{2015} = \ ?


The answer is 2016.

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2 solutions

Aareyan Manzoor
Jan 3, 2016

i am not good in combo so i use a calculus approach. consider the summation k = 0 2016 ( 1 ) 2016 k ( x + 1 ) k ( 2016 k ) = x 2016 \sum_{k=0}^{2016} (-1)^{2016-k}(x+1)^k \binom{2016}{k}=x^{2016} we get this by the binomial theorem. we d.w.r.x and multiply both sides with (x+1) to get k = 0 2016 ( 1 ) 2016 k ( x + 1 ) k k ( 2016 k ) = 2016 x 2015 ( x + 1 ) \sum_{k=0}^{2016} (-1)^{2016-k}(x+1)^k k \binom{2016}{k}=2016x^{2015}(x+1) we repeat this 2015 times! we dont have to do that. we just easily notice that the polynomial formed after 2015 differentiation will not have any constant term or at x=0. that will be zero. basically k = 0 2016 ( 1 ) 2016 k k 2015 ( 2016 k ) = 0 \sum_{k=0}^{2016} (-1)^{2016-k} k^{2015}\binom{2016}{k}=0 or k = 2 2016 ( 1 ) 2016 k k 2015 ( 2016 k ) = 2016 \sum_{k=2}^{2016} (-1)^{2016-k} k^{2015}\binom{2016}{k}=\boxed{2016}

Yes, this is a clear and solid way to do it! (+1) I often use this kind of relation in linear algebra, when dealing with Vandermonde Matrices, for example, here

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 5 months ago
Alan Yan
Jan 4, 2016

We can interpret this combinatorially. Note that if we shift the index so that it starts from k = 0 k=0 , by the principle of inclusion and exclusion, this is equivalent to arranging 2015 balls into a row of 2016 boxes such that each box has a positive number of balls. This is obviously zero. Thus, the desired expression is just ( 2016 1 ) = 2016 {2016 \choose 1}=2016 .

Distinct Objects into Distinct Bins

Yes, exactly! (+1) That's where I got the formula from. For those members who are not familiar with this stuff, can you give a good reference?

Your solution takes care of this one too!

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 5 months ago

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