More Proof

Is it possible to prove that for all positive integers n n , n ! n! divides k = 0 n 1 ( 2 n 2 k ) \prod_{k=0}^{n-1}(2^n-2^k) ?

No, it is not possible. Yes, it is possible.

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1 solution

Leonel Castillo
Jan 18, 2018

First let's rewrite k = 0 n 1 ( 2 n 2 k ) = k = 0 n 1 2 k ( 2 n k 1 ) = 2 t n 1 k = 0 n 1 ( 2 n k 1 ) = 2 t n 1 k = 1 n ( 2 k 1 ) \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (2^n - 2^k) = \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} 2^k(2^{n-k} - 1) = 2^{t_{n-1}} \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (2^{n-k}-1) = 2^{t_{n-1}} \prod_{k=1}^{n} (2^k - 1) where t n t_n are the triangular numbers.

Now, according to De Polignac's Formula the highest power of a prime p p that divides n ! n! is k = 1 n p k k = 1 n p k = n p 1 \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \lfloor \frac{n}{p^k} \rfloor \leq \lfloor \sum_{k=1}^{\infty} \frac{n}{p^k} \rfloor = \lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} \rfloor . For p = 2 p=2 this is n n which is smaller than or equal to t n 1 t_{n-1} whenever n > 2 n>2 so our product has a high enough power of 2 2 whenever n > 2 n>2 . (And the cases n=1,2 can be checked to hold by computation).

For odd primes simply apply Fermat's little theorem which says that 2 p 1 1 0 m o d p 2^{p-1} - 1 \equiv 0 \mod p to find that k = 1 n ( 2 k 1 ) \prod_{k=1}^{n} (2^k - 1) will be divided at least once by p p for each multiple of p 1 p-1 smaller than or equal to n n so this entire product is divided by p n p 1 p^{\lfloor \frac{n}{p-1} \rfloor} . This means that indeed k = 0 n 1 ( 2 n 2 k ) \prod_{k=0}^{n-1} (2^n - 2^k) is divisible by n ! n! .

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