Multivariable Integration

Calculus Level 5

If f ( x ) = sin x + π / 2 π / 2 ( sin x + m cos x ) f ( m ) d m , f(x) = \sin x + \int_{-\pi /2}^{\pi /2} ( \sin x + m \cos x) f(m) \, dm , find 0 π / 2 f ( x ) d x \displaystyle \int_0^{\pi /2} f(x) \, dx .

0 -3 -2 -1 1

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1 solution

An interesting one !

We have, f ( x ) = sin x + π 2 π 2 ( sin x + m cos x ) f ( m ) d m \displaystyle f(x)=\sin x+\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} (\sin x+m\cos x)f(m)dm

Differentiating twice we have, f ( x ) = f ( x ) \displaystyle f''(x) = -f(x) which is popularly known as Van Der Pol's Equation .

The solution to the equation is given by , f ( x ) = k 1 sin x + k 2 cos x \displaystyle f(x)=k_1\sin x+k_2\cos x

So we have two forms of f ( x ) f(x) namely,

{ f ( x ) = sin x + π 2 π 2 ( sin x + m cos x ) f ( m ) d m (*) f ( x ) = k 1 sin x + k 2 cos x (**) \displaystyle \begin{cases} f(x)=\sin x+\int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} (\sin x+m\cos x)f(m)dm \space \space \text{ (*)} \\ f(x)=k_1\sin x+k_2\cos x \space \space \text{ (**)}\end{cases}

From ( ) (**) we have f ( 0 ) = k 2 f(0)=k_2 & f ( π 2 ) = k 1 f(\frac{\pi}{2}) = k_1 ,

Now from ( ) (*) we have , f ( 0 ) = π 2 π 2 x f ( x ) d x = π 2 π 2 x ( k 1 sin x + k 2 cos x ) d x = 2 k 1 0 π 2 x sin x d x = 2 k 1 \displaystyle f(0) = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} xf(x)dx = \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} x(k_1\sin x+k_2\cos x)dx = 2k_1\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} x\sin x dx =2k_1

Since f ( 0 ) = k 2 f(0)=k_2 , k 2 = 2 k 1 \displaystyle k_2=2k_1

Similarly we have, k 1 = 1 + 2 k 2 \displaystyle k_1=1+2k_2 from f ( π 2 ) f(\frac{\pi}{2})

Solving we have , { k 1 = 1 3 k 2 = 2 3 \displaystyle \begin{cases} k_1=-\frac{1}{3} \\ k_2=-\frac{2}{3} \end{cases}

Therefore , 0 π 2 f ( x ) d x = 1 3 2 3 = 1 \displaystyle \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} f(x) dx = -\frac{1}{3}-\frac{2}{3} = -1

Note : \text{Note :}

Solution to Van-Der-Pol's Equation is as follows :

d 2 y d x 2 + y = 0 ( D 2 + 1 ) y = 0 \displaystyle \frac{d^2 y}{dx^2}+y=0\implies (D^2+1)y=0 where D 'D' is the differential operator

According to the rules if the roots of the polynomial in D D are imaginary and of the form α ± i β \alpha\pm i\beta then the solution is givcen by, y = e α x ( c 1 c o s ( β x ) + c 2 sin ( β x ) ) \displaystyle y= e^{-\alpha x} (c_1 cos(\beta x)+c_2\sin(\beta x))

Here the solutions are ± i \pm i so the solution of the DE is,

y = c 1 cos x + c 2 sin x \displaystyle y= c_1\cos x+c_2\sin x

Did the same.

Didn't know that SHM like equation is called so.

Aakash Khandelwal - 4 years, 10 months ago

Your knowledge of calculus is awesome!. where do you study currently?

Prakhar Bindal - 4 years, 7 months ago

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