Much ado about nothing

Algebra Level 3

k = 2 k 3 k ( k 2 1 ) = ? \large{\sum_{k=2}^{\infty}\frac{k-3}{k(k^2-1)}=\ ?}


Inspiration .


The answer is 0.

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3 solutions

Let k 3 k ( k 2 1 ) = A k + B k 1 + C k + 1 . \dfrac{k - 3}{k(k^{2} - 1)} = \dfrac{A}{k} + \dfrac{B}{k - 1} + \dfrac{C}{k + 1}.

Then k 3 = A ( k 2 1 ) + B k ( k + 1 ) + C k ( k 1 ) = ( A + B + C ) k 2 + ( B C ) k A . k - 3 = A(k^{2} - 1) + Bk(k + 1) + Ck(k - 1) = (A + B + C)k^{2} + (B - C)k - A.

Comparing like coefficients, we see that A + B + C = 0 , B C = 1 A + B + C = 0, B - C = 1 and A = 3. A = 3.

Thus ( B + C ) + ( B C ) = 3 + 1 = 2 B = 1 (B + C) + (B - C) = -3 + 1 = -2 \Longrightarrow B = -1 and C = 2. C = -2.

So k 3 k ( k 2 1 ) = 3 k 1 k 1 2 k + 1 . \dfrac{k - 3}{k(k^{2} - 1)} = \dfrac{3}{k} - \dfrac{1}{k - 1} - \dfrac{2}{k + 1}.

Now since the series clearly converges by the comparison test with 1 k 2 \sum \frac{1}{k^{2}} we are free to rearrange terms. In doing so, we note that each integer denominator n 3 n \ge 3 will appear (in unreduced fractions) three times, once for each of the fractions in the above sum. In each case this rearrangement will sum to 0 , 0, leaving the occurrences of 1 1 and 2 2 in denominators as the only fractions we need to consider further. Now we have one occurrence of denominator 1 1 when k = 2 k = 2 and two occurrences of denominator 2 , 2, one each for k = 2 k = 2 and k = 3. k = 3. These sum to

3 2 1 2 1 1 3 1 = 0 . \dfrac{3}{2} - \dfrac{1}{2 - 1} - \dfrac{1}{3 - 1} = \boxed{0}.

Much ado about nothing, indeed. :) (The title was a pretty strong hint.)

Note: We don't need the convergence by comparison test to rearrange terms with their neighbors. We only need absolute convergence when we are "arbitrarily" rearranging terms (e.g. from a 10 a_{10} to b 100 b_{100} ).

That is why telescoping series always work (and schools can happily ignore what happens in the infinite case).

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 8 months ago
Yi Jian Cheow
Sep 19, 2015

Express the given fraction in terms of partial fractions & apply cover-up rule to get the expression (k-3)/(k^2-1)=-1/(k-1) + 3/k - 2/(k+1).

From there apply the method of difference on the summation where infinity is replaced by N to obtain 1/N - 2/(N+1).

From there use the concept of reciprocal of N tending to zero as N tends to infinity to obtain zero.

Dong kwan Yoo
Sep 20, 2015

(k-3)/ k(k^2 -1) = 1/2 ( 1/k-1 - 1/k+1 ) - 1/2 { 3/(k-1)k - 3/k(k+1) } So Ans) = 1/2 ( 1/1 + 1/2 ) - 1/2 ( 3/1*2 ) = 3/4 - 3/4 = 0 (by telescoping sum )

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