The Fibonacci numbers are given by
So, the first few are 0 , 1 , 1 , 2 , 3 , 5 , 8 , 1 3 .
If we generalize this to negative numbers, what is F ( − 8 ) ?
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Seems to be; no formal proof but I am 99.9999% sure :P
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Yes, its true... Proof by induction...
Consider postive n .
Its trivially true for − n = 0 and − n = − 1 . Assume its true for F − n + 1 and F − n + 2 , and we will show its true for F − n
F − n = F − n + 1 − F − n + 2 (as we saw above)
F − n = ( − 1 ) n F n − 1 − ( − 1 ) n + 1 F n − 2
F − n = ( − 1 ) n + 1 ( F n − 1 + F n − 2 )
F − n = ( − 1 ) n + 1 F n
QED
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In general,
F ( n ) = F ( n − 1 ) + F ( n − 2 )
so you can calculate backwards by saying:
F ( n − 2 ) = F ( n ) − F ( n − 1 )
This gives,
And in general,
F − n = ( − 1 ) n + 1 F n
Here is a quick proof by induction...
Consider postive n .
Its trivially true for − n = 0 and − n = − 1 . Assume its true for F − n + 1 and F − n + 2 , and we will show its true for F − n
F − n = F − n + 1 − F − n + 2 (as we saw above)
F − n = ( − 1 ) n F n − 1 − ( − 1 ) n + 1 F n − 2
F − n = ( − 1 ) n + 1 ( F n − 1 + F n − 2 )
F − n = ( − 1 ) n + 1 F n
QED
So,
F ( − 8 ) = − F ( 8 ) = − 2 1