2 ! 1 ! 2 − 4 ! 2 ! 2 + 6 ! 3 ! 2 − 8 ! 4 ! 2 + ⋯
If the sum above equals to A 1 + A A B ln φ , where A and B are coprime positive integers and φ is the golden ratio . Find A × B .
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To solve hints are:
1) Recognise the sum and write it in form of gamma's.
2) Convert it into form of beta function.
3) Interchange the positions of integral and summation signs.
4) Use Concept of ArithmeticoGeometric Series and convert it all into terms of x .
5) Finally integrate the expression.
Could you elaborate step 3 ? How is it valid to interchange summation and integral signs? Or could you refer me a good source so that I can learn? Thanks.
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We apply a special case of Kishlaya's identity by letting f ( x ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ k ( k 2 k ) x k = 2 4 − x x arcsin ( 2 x ) . Differentiating, we obtain f ′ ( x ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k 2 k ) x k − 1 = ( 4 − x ) 2 4 − x x 4 arctan 4 − x x + 4 − x 1 . Now, by substituting x = − 1 , we get f ′ ( − 1 ) = k = 1 ∑ ∞ ( k 2 k ) ( − 1 ) k − 1 = 5 i 5 4 arctan − 5 1 + 5 1 . Here comes the interesting bit, how should we evaluate arctan − 5 1 ? Not to worry, we have the inverse hyperbolic tangent function to save the day. Thus, arctan − 5 1 = = = = i tanh − 1 5 1 2 i ln 1 − 5 1 1 + 5 1 i ln 2 1 + 5 i ln φ . With that, we obtain the desired result, giving A × B = 2 0 .