x → 0 lim x 4 1 − cos ( 1 − cos x ) = ?
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The 4th equality hasn't been sufficiently justified by " sin x ∼ x near 0".
We still need to state that " sin x is continuous at x = 0 ".
Formally, what you are doing, is claiming that if lim g ( x ) = L , then lim f ( g ( x ) ) = lim f ( L ) . This requires the continuity of f (and you can easily find a counter example).
The 4th equality hasn't been sufficiently justified by " sin x ∼ x near 0".
We still need to state that " sin x is continuous at x = 0 ".
Formally, what you are doing, is claiming that if lim g ( x ) = L , then lim f ( g ( x ) ) = lim f ( L ) . This requires the continuity of f (and you can easily find a counter example).
1-Cos(u)~ u u/2 so for 2 time this... . x x x x/x x x x 8=1/8=0.125
Using L'Hopital's rule 3 times to successive indeterminate forms reduces the expression to 2 4 3 = 0 . 1 2 5
Can you show the working for it? I'm interested to what extent it all cancels out.
My preferred approach in such a situation is to use the Taylor expansion directly instead.
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Hi Calvin,
The working is quite long, but as you go along you can informally drop terms by thinking ahead. I'd hate to write it all out in Latex and justify the shortcuts!
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x → 0 lim x 4 1 − cos ( 1 − cos x ) = x → 0 lim 2 x 4 2 ( 1 − cos ( 1 − cos x ) ) = x → 0 lim x 4 2 sin 2 ( 2 1 − cos x ) = x → 0 lim x 4 2 sin 2 ( sin 2 ( x / 2 ) ) ( Note that in above 2 steps , I have excessively used sin 2 ( x ) = 2 1 − c o s ( 2 x ) ) = x → 0 lim x 4 2 sin 2 ( 4 x 2 ) ∵ sin ( x ) ≈ x as x → 0 lim = x → 0 lim 1 6 x 4 2 x 4 ∵ sin ( x ) ≈ x as x → 0 lim = 1 6 2 = 8 1 = 0 . 1 2 5