Look at the following pattern shown below:
9 in base 10 is 100 1 in binary.
99 in base 10 is 11000 11 in binary.
999 in base 10 is 1111100 111 in binary.
9999 in base 10 is 1001110000 1111 in binary.
Notice that for every n digits of 9 in mod 10, it will result in n digits of 1 at its trailing end, in binary.
Will this pattern keep going on forever? Or is there an exception to this?
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The answer is "Yes". We'll show this, and a bit more...
Note that 9 9 … 9 n 9 s = 1 0 n − 1 and N in binary ends with 0 0 1 1 … 1 n 1 s ⟺ N ≡ 2 n − 1 ( m o d 2 n + 2 ) Therefore, we need to check whether 1 0 n − 1 ≡ 2 n − 1 ( m o d 2 n + 2 ) for every natural number n .
To see this, note that 2 n + 2 ( 1 0 n − 1 ) − ( 2 n − 1 ) = 2 n + 2 1 0 n − 2 n = 2 2 5 n − 1 = 2 2 ( 5 − 1 ) ∑ k = 0 n − 1 5 k = k = 0 ∑ n − 1 5 k which is an integer. Therefore, we have shown that 9 9 … 9 n 9 s in binary ends with 0 0 1 1 … 1 n 1 s
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This question is easy to understand once you add 1 to everything! Here is how you solve:
Add 1 to everything you see above (Adding in binary is not that hard, the only thing different is that 1 + 1 becomes 0 in binary. Don't forget the carry overs!):
1 0 in base 10 is 101 0 in binary.
1 00 in base 10 is 110001 00 in binary.
1 000 in base 10 is 1111101 000 in binary.
1 0,000 in base 10 is 1001110001 0000 in binary.
Do you see what I see? The number of trailing zeroes in both base 10 and 2 are the same! All we need now is a little bit of logic:
10 is 2(mod 4), and when you times 10, you only get an extra multiple of 2, therefore:
100 is 4(mod 8), and it is not 0(mod 8) because it does not contain 3 multiples of 2!
1000 is 8(mod 16), as it only has 3 multiples of 2, not 4.
And so on......
See that this pattern will keep going on forever? I hope you understand it better than the other solutions!
Hence, by induction, this pattern will keep going on forever, so the answer is Yes.