Consider all differentiable functions f ( x ) : R → R that satisfy
Find the supremum of possible values of f ( 1 ) f ( 0 ) .
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From the first condition, we can assume f ( x ) = e g ( x ) .
From the second condition, f ( x ) + f ′ ( x ) = ( g ′ ( x ) + 1 ) e g ( x ) ≥ 0 ⇔ g ′ ( x ) ≥ − 1
⟹ g ( 1 ) − g ( 0 ) = ∫ 0 1 g ′ ( x ) d x ≥ ∫ 0 1 − 1 d x = − 1
So f ( 1 ) f ( 0 ) = e g ( 0 ) − g ( 1 ) < e
Note that any such ϵ > 0 we can find f ( x ) = e − x + e 2 ϵ such that f ( 1 ) f ( 0 ) = e + ϵ e 2 + ϵ > e − ϵ
So e is the supremum.
I believe that strict positivity still works in the question. The issue is to show that the supremum is still 1, despite not being able to directly use f ( x ) = e − x .
IE Assuming that the question is correct, your solution doesn't completely answer the question.
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So I assume my solution now does answer the question?
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Yes. The edit of e − ϵ that you did helps fix the "not able to directly use f ( x ) = e − x .
In your last inequation the equality should never be achieved because of the second condition of positivity.
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Frankly said, I don't know what the supremum is very well. Can you check if it is correct now?
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supremum of a set is just the ``lowest'' among all upper bounds of the set; in other words, sup S of a set is an upper bound of S , such that ∀ ϵ > 0 , sup S − ϵ is not an upper bound of S . So yes, your proof now is correct.
Check out infimum/supremum .
It's the same idea as maximum / minimum, but the value need not be achieved. For example, the supremum of { x < 1 } is 1, but there is no maximum since x = 1 is not in the set.
Letting g ( x ) = e x f ( x ) , we get g ′ ( x ) = e x ( f ( x ) + f ′ ( x ) ) > 0 ⟹ g is a strictly increasing function (from the second condition). Thus, f ( 1 ) f ( 0 ) = e g ( 1 ) g ( 0 ) < e , for all such f . Let S be the set of values of all such f ( 1 ) f ( 0 ) , so that we have sup S ≤ e .
Now, lets assume that sup S < e , so that δ : = e − sup S > 0 . Let us consider all functions h such that h ( x ) = e − x + ϵ , with ϵ > 0 , so that h satisfies both the prescribed conditions. Then, ∀ ϵ > 0 , h ( 1 ) h ( 0 ) = e − 1 + ϵ ϵ + 1 ∈ S , and since ∀ ϵ > 0 , e − 1 + ϵ ϵ + 1 > 1 , we have that sup S > 1 . Now, we can find ϵ > 0 such that e − 1 + ϵ ϵ + 1 > e − δ , by choosing ϵ such that ϵ ( sup S − 1 ) < δ / e , which is possible since sup S > 1 . But that means we can find an ϵ > 0 such that e − 1 + ϵ ϵ + 1 > sup S , which is a contradiction as e − 1 + ϵ ϵ + 1 ∈ S by construction. Thus, we must have sup S = e ■
This solution is incorrect. f ( 0 ) = 0 if f ( x ) = e − x .
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I mean, x e − x
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Sorry, it really should be g ( x ) = 1 , or for any constant for that matter.
I believe that strict positivity still works in the question. The issue is to show that the supremum is still 1, despite not being able to use f ( x ) = e − x .
IE Assuming that the quesiton is correct, your solution doesn't completely answer the question.
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You are correct, we do not need non-negativity as we need supremum. I will change my answer accordingly.
Is something wrong with my solution???.................................. I solved it by taking f(x) as y and then according to the conditions, dy/dx > -y...........Solving this results in y > exp(-x+c).........so, f(x)=exp(-x+c) + d......where c is the constant of integration and d is any really small number..........Thus putting the values, we get the minimum of the desired expression as e......
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F(x) is positive and f(x)+f'(x) is positive. Consider, Function f(x) = e^-x But we will get f(x)+f'(x)= 0 So we consider f(x)=e^-x/k Where k --->1 (tending to 1) Then f(0)=1 And f(1) will tend to 1/e So f(0)/f(1) will be equal to "e"=2.718