Let A B C be an isosceles triangle with ∠ A B C = ∠ A C B = 8 0 ∘ . Point M is on side A B (not on A B extended) such that A M = B C . Find ∠ M C B in degrees.
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Without loss of generality let BC=1. Applying Sin Law to triangle ABC we get S i n 2 0 B C = S i n 8 0 A B . A B = 2 . 8 7 9 3 8 . ∴ M B = 1 . 8 7 9 3 8 . I n Δ M B C , A p p l y i n g C o s L a w , M C 2 = 1 . 8 7 9 3 8 2 + 1 2 − 2 ∗ 1 . 8 7 9 3 8 ∗ 1 ∗ C o s 8 0 , ∴ M C = 1 . 9 6 9 6 . A p p l y i n g S i n L a w , 1 . 8 7 9 3 8 S i n M C B = 1 . 9 6 9 6 S i n 8 0 . ∴ ∠ M C B = 7 0 o .
why do you let BC be 1 and how does this not effect the question in a negative way?
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Because the length is arbitrary. Scaling all lengths the same leaves the angles invariant, so you might as well just set the one unknown length to 1
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ok thank you
Thank you. It also simplifies calculations.
Nice construction! What software is that?
I hope it is clear enough, it is only 2 equations, but a calculator is needed to get the final number.
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Image from GeoGebra .
Motivation for construction: A M = B C means that we would want to "move" a shape with base A M (probably a triangle) to B C .
Hence we have point D such that △ B C D ≡ △ A M C .
By construction, B D = A C = A B , thus △ A B D is an isosceles triangle.
Also, ∠ M A C = 1 8 0 ∘ − 2 ∗ 8 0 ∘ = 2 0 ∘ ⇒ ∠ A B D = 8 0 ∘ − 2 0 ∘ = 6 0 ∘
Hence △ A B D is an equilateral triangle.
Furthermore, note that A D = B D = A C , so △ A C D is isosceles.
∠ C A D = 6 0 ∘ − 2 0 ∘ = 4 0 ∘ ⇒ ∠ A D C = 2 1 8 0 ∘ − 4 0 ∘ = 7 0 ∘ ⇒ ∠ A C M = ∠ B D C = 7 0 ∘ − 6 0 ∘ = 1 0 ∘
Finally, ∠ M C B = 8 0 ∘ − 1 0 ∘ = 7 0 ∘