If you had a fair coin, that is one that flips heads and tails evenly, and flipped it 20 times in a row, the odds that all twenty of those flips will be heads is about 1 in a 1 , 0 0 0 , 0 0 0 .
If you kept flipping and kept turning up heads, how much more flips of heads would you have to get to for the odds to be at least 1 in a 1 , 0 0 0 , 0 0 0 , 0 0 0 ?
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A quick answer using logarithms.
Because we are considering a Binomial Distribution Bi n ( n , p ) with parameters n = 2 0 , p = 2 1 , we can check that indeed
P ( Bi 2 0 = 2 0 ) = ( 2 0 2 0 ) ( 2 1 ) 2 0 ≈ 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 = 1 0 − 6 .
Now we want to know when
P ( Bi n = n ) = 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 = 1 0 − 9 ,
so we need to solve for n :
P ( Bi n = n ) = ( n n ) ( 2 1 ) n = 2 − n = 1 0 − 9 ⟹ 2 n = 1 0 9 ⟹ ln ( 2 n ) = ln ( 1 0 9 ) ⟹ n ln 2 = 9 ln 1 0 ⟹ n = 9 ln 2 ln 1 0 ≈ 3 0 .
So the correct answer is ten times more .
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Relevant wiki: Binomial Distribution
Solving involves a calculation of probability . If a fair coin is flipped once, the odds of getting heads is 2 1 . If the coin is flipped twice, then there are four possible outcomes, HH, HT, TH, HH , with H representing heads and T representing tails. For this, there is a 4 1 odds of getting two heads in a row, or 2 2 1 . Similarly if a coin is flipped three times, there is a 8 1 or 2 3 1 chance of flipping three heads in a row.
So a generalized formula for the odds of flipping a fair coin all heads n times in a row turns out to be 2 n 1 .
In which case, if n = 2 0 then 2 2 0 1 = 1 , 0 4 8 , 5 7 6 1 .
If n = 3 0 then 2 3 0 1 = 1 , 0 7 3 , 7 4 1 , 8 2 4 1 .
Ten more times and the odds become one in a billion.