One in a Million V. One in a Billion

If you had a fair coin, that is one that flips heads and tails evenly, and flipped it 20 times in a row, the odds that all twenty of those flips will be heads is about 1 in a 1 , 000 , 000 1 \text{ in a } 1,000,000 .

If you kept flipping and kept turning up heads, how much​ more flips of heads would you have to get to for the odds to be at least 1 in a 1 , 000 , 000 , 000 1 \text{ in a } 1,000,000,000 ?

Ten more flips, flipping 30 heads in a row has one in a billion odds Two more flips, flipping 22 heads in a row has one in a billion odds Five more flips, flipping 25 heads in a row has one in a billion odds Twenty more flips, flipping 40 heads in a row has one in a billion odds One more flip, flipping 21 heads in a row has one in a billion odds

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2 solutions

Relevant wiki: Binomial Distribution

Solving involves a calculation of probability . If a fair coin is flipped once, the odds of getting heads is 1 2 \frac{1}{2} . If the coin is flipped twice, then there are four possible outcomes, HH, HT, TH, HH \text{HH, HT, TH, HH} , with H \text{H} representing heads and T \text{T} representing tails. For this, there is a 1 4 \frac{1}{4} odds of getting two heads in a row, or 1 2 2 \frac{1}{2^2} . Similarly if a coin is flipped three times, there is a 1 8 \frac{1}{8} or 1 2 3 \frac{1}{2^3} chance of flipping three heads in a row.

So a generalized formula for the odds of flipping a fair coin all heads n n times in a row turns out to be 1 2 n \frac{1}{2^n} .
In which case, if n = 20 n=20 then 1 2 20 = 1 1 , 048 , 576 \frac{1}{2^{20}} = \frac{1}{1,048,576} .
If n = 30 n=30 then 1 2 3 0 = 1 1 , 073 , 741 , 824 \frac{1}{2^30} = \frac{1}{1,073,741,824} .
Ten more times and the odds become one in a billion.

Michele Polli
Jul 27, 2019

A quick answer using logarithms.

Because we are considering a Binomial Distribution Bi n ( n , p ) \text{Bi}_{n}(n,p) with parameters n = 20 , p = 1 2 n=20, p=\frac{1}{2} , we can check that indeed

P ( Bi 20 = 20 ) = ( 20 20 ) ( 1 2 ) 20 1 1000000 = 1 0 6 . \begin{aligned} P(\text{Bi}_{20}=20) & ={20\choose20}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}\bigg)^{20} \\ & \approx\frac{1}{1000000}=10^{-6}.\end{aligned}

Now we want to know when

P ( Bi n = n ) = 1 1000000000 = 1 0 9 , P(\text{Bi}_{n}=n)=\frac{1}{1000000000}=10^{-9},

so we need to solve for n n :

P ( Bi n = n ) = ( n n ) ( 1 2 ) n = 2 n = 1 0 9 2 n = 1 0 9 ln ( 2 n ) = ln ( 1 0 9 ) n ln 2 = 9 ln 10 n = 9 ln 10 ln 2 30 . \begin{aligned} P(\text{Bi}_{n}=n) & ={n\choose n}\bigg(\frac{1}{2}\bigg)^n=2^{-n}=10^{-9} \\ & \implies 2^n=10^9 \\ & \implies \ln(2^n)=\ln(10^9) \\ & \implies n\ln2=9\ln10 \\ & \implies n=9\frac{\ln10}{\ln2}\approx\boxed{30}.\end{aligned}

So the correct answer is ten times more .

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