One of three of a kind - Part (3) - Final

n = 1 ( 1 1 ϕ n ) [ μ ( n ) φ ( n ) ] / n \Large \prod_{n=1}^{\infty} \left(1-\frac{1}{\phi^n}\right)^{[\mu(n)-\varphi(n)]/n}

What is the value of the product above?

Note: φ \varphi is the Euler totient function , μ \mu is the Moebius function, and ϕ = 1 + 5 2 \phi = \dfrac{1+\sqrt5}{2} is the golden ratio.


Part 1 and Part 2 .

0 0 e e 1 1 i i π \pi

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1 solution

Julian Poon
Oct 28, 2015

Great problem! Part 1 and 2 are definitely needed for this problem!

Suppose k = 1 ( 1 1 ϕ n ) μ ( k ) φ ( k ) k = S \prod _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) ^{ \frac { \mu \left( k \right) -\varphi \left( k \right) }{ k } }=S We can log both sides to obtain ln S = ln k = 1 ( 1 1 ϕ n ) μ ( k ) φ ( k ) k = k = 1 μ ( k ) φ ( k ) k ln ( 1 1 ϕ n ) = k = 1 μ ( k ) k ln ( 1 1 ϕ n ) k = 1 φ ( k ) k ln ( 1 1 ϕ n ) \ln { S } =\ln { \prod _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) ^{ \frac { \mu \left( k \right) -\varphi \left( k \right) }{ k } } } =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \frac { \mu \left( k \right) -\varphi \left( k \right) }{ k } \ln { \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) } =\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \frac { \mu \left( k \right) }{ k } \ln { \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) } -\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \frac { \varphi \left( k \right) }{ k } \ln { \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) }

Since 1 ϕ < 1 \frac { 1 }{ \phi } <1 , and using the fact that ϕ = 1 + 5 2 \phi =\frac{1+\sqrt{5}}{2} , we can derive that k = 1 μ ( k ) k ln ( 1 1 ϕ n ) k = 1 φ ( k ) k ln ( 1 1 ϕ n ) = 1 \sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \frac { \mu \left( k \right) }{ k } \ln { \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) } -\sum _{ k=1 }^{ \infty } \frac { \varphi \left( k \right) }{ k } \ln { \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ \phi ^{ n } } \right) } =1

I'm not going to show why here, since it is what part 1 and 2 of this question is about, and I don't wish to reveal the answer here.

Hence ln S = 1 , S = e \ln{S}=1, \quad S=e

Moderator note:

Be careful with breaking up summations. To justify ( a n + b n ) = a n + b n \sum ( a_n + b_n) = \sum a_n + \sum b_n , we have to first ensure that the RHS is absolutely convergent.

Ah! I was on the way to write solutions of 3/3 but you beat me and by a huge margin - 5 hours. BTW, nice solution! And a really good set Alisa with a great finale. I will be waiting for more.

Kartik Sharma - 5 years, 7 months ago

Just a PSA, you don't have to attach \left or \right to every bracket. Sometimes, it even looks nasty.

Jake Lai - 5 years, 6 months ago

I challenge you all to solve atleast 5 of my questions,, HaHaHa !!

Hrisheek Yadav - 5 years, 7 months ago

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