Let given that ( p = b e a P r i m e n u m b e r ) and has below typicality:
p p − p = p
How many prime numbers have above typicality?
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p p − p = p
The above typicality just true for ( 2 2 ) − 2 = 2 ∵ only 2 has this typicality such that p p = p + p
( 2 2 = 4 ) − 2 = 2
@Matin Naseri , do u watch Transformers ??
p p − p = p ⟹ p p = 2 p .
p p means multiplying p by itself p times. Now, we have p p = 2 p . Where p is multiplied by 2 in the right hand side. So obviously, it must be p = 2 . Since 2 is a prime number, the answer is 1.
I think it would be much clear if you write it as p p − 1 = 2 for why p = 2 is only the solution.
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If p^p-p=p, then p^p=2p, so p^(p-1)=2. We can see that p can be 2. Since 1 is not prime, the rest of the primes are integers greater than 2. So (2+k)^(2+k-1)=2, where k is an integer. So (2+k)^(k+1)=2. By binomial expansion (2+k)^(k+1)=2^(k+1)+(positive value). So this must equal 2 but for all k greater than 0 this will increase. Since all primes are integers greater than 2, they will all cause an increase to the computation. Since 2 is a number that satisfies this, all numbers greater than it will cause an increase and therefore not be equal to 2. Since 2 is the only integer satisfying this, 2 is also the only prime satisfying this which leads to our answer of 1 .