Optimus prime number

Let given that ( p = b e a P r i m e n u m b e r ) \text{}(p=be ~a ~Prime ~ number) and has below typicality:

p p p = p \text{}{p}^{p} - p =p

How many prime numbers have above typicality?

3 4 2 1

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3 solutions

Garv Khurana
Oct 20, 2018

If p^p-p=p, then p^p=2p, so p^(p-1)=2. We can see that p can be 2. Since 1 is not prime, the rest of the primes are integers greater than 2. So (2+k)^(2+k-1)=2, where k is an integer. So (2+k)^(k+1)=2. By binomial expansion (2+k)^(k+1)=2^(k+1)+(positive value). So this must equal 2 but for all k greater than 0 this will increase. Since all primes are integers greater than 2, they will all cause an increase to the computation. Since 2 is a number that satisfies this, all numbers greater than it will cause an increase and therefore not be equal to 2. Since 2 is the only integer satisfying this, 2 is also the only prime satisfying this which leads to our answer of 1 .

Matin Naseri
Mar 14, 2018

p p p = p \text{}{p}^{p}-p=p

The above typicality just true for ( 2 2 ) 2 = 2 \text{}({2}^{2})-2=2 \because only 2 has this typicality such that p p = p + p \text{p}^{p}=p+p

( 2 2 = 4 ) 2 = 2 \text{}(2^{2}=4)-2 =2

@Matin Naseri , do u watch Transformers ??

Aakhyat Singh - 3 years, 2 months ago

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Of course.

But When I was 6 years old.

Matin Naseri - 3 years, 2 months ago
Munem Shahriar
Mar 15, 2018

p p p = p p p = 2 p . \large p^p - p = p \implies p^p = 2p.

p p p^p means multiplying p p by itself p p times. Now, we have p p = 2 p p^p = 2p . Where p p is multiplied by 2 2 in the right hand side. So obviously, it must be p = 2 p = 2 . Since 2 is a prime number, the answer is 1.

I think it would be much clear if you write it as p p 1 = 2 p^{p-1} =2 for why p = 2 p= 2 is only the solution.

Naren Bhandari - 3 years, 2 months ago

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