The graph of the function y = ln ( cos x ) is sketched in which set of axes?
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Since cos x is an even function, y = ln ( cos x ) is also an even function. Among the five answer options only graph A shows an even function. And since cos x < 0 in the second and third quadrants ( ∣ x ∣ > ( 2 k + 2 1 ) π ), y only has real values in the first and last quadrants ( ∣ x ∣ < ( 2 k + 2 1 ) π ), where cos x decreases from 1 to 0 and hence y decreases from 0 to − ∞ , as ∣ x ∣ increased from ( 2 k + 0 ) π to ( 2 k + 2 1 ) π . Therefore, graph A shows the function y .
Easiest method :- Put x=0 , y will also be 0 , And there was only one graph touching origin
I differentiated it to get sinx/cosx which is tanx, and then plugged in 0 and the only graph with gradient 0 at x=0 is graph A
Since cos(x) is an even function (i-e cos(x)=cos(-x)) which implies that the left sub-graph must be a mirror image of right sub-graph which indicates that (A) must be the graph of ln(cos(x))
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Since ln cos x = ln cos ( − x ) , and the only graph of an even function is A, the answer must hence be A.
More features of A resembling y = ln cos x include:
At x = 0 , ln cos 0 = ln 1 = 0 . None of the other graphs pass through the origin.
On certain intervals, cos x is positive (namely ( ( 2 k − 2 1 ) π , ( 2 k + 2 1 ) π ) ). Since the domain of ln is R + , ln cos x is defined at exactly x in those intervals. On the complement (namely [ ( 2 k + 2 1 ) π , ( 2 k + 2 3 ) π ] ), cos x is nonpositive, and so ln cos x is undefined at exactly x in those intervals. A fits the bill.
Drawing a rough sketch of A's tangent's gradient, we get a graph closely resembling − tan x . Why? Why, because it is just that.