Can be expressed as the countable disjoint union of at least 2 closed sets?
This is related to the 1-D analogue of this problem .
It can clearly be written as the disjoint union of 1 closed set, namely
.
It can clearly be written as the uncountable disjoint union of closed sets, namely place every point in it's own set.
Warning: I do not know of any "elementary" proof of this theorem.
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This is a special case of a result by Sierpinski .