Pens Have Other Uses Too

I assume that you work through these problems using some sort of writing utensil. Take your pen, balance it on its tip, and let go. It falls over. How fast in m/s is the other end of the pen going when it hits the table, assuming the tip doesn't slip? Take the pen to be a uniform one dimensional rod of length 15 cm.


The answer is 2.1.

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4 solutions

Tilak Patel
Apr 20, 2014

Consider the pen to be a thin rod having uniform mass distribution over its length

Let m = m = Total mass of pen

l = l = length of pen = 15 c m = 15 cm

ω = \omega = angular velocity of pen when it hits the table

Initially when the pen is held vertical, the center of mass of pen is l 2 c m \frac{l}{2} cm above the level of table and when it is released, it rotates about it's bottom tip and hits the table by which the height of center of mass of pen becomes zero w.r.t table

Let y 1 = y_{1} = Initial height of the center of mass w.r.t table = l 2 c m = \frac{l}{2} cm

y 2 = y_{2} = Final height of the center of mass w.r.t table = 0 c m = 0 cm

Hence,the change in gravitational potential energy of pen is responsible for the rotational motion of pen about its lower tip.

K = 1 2 I ω 2 = \therefore K = \frac{1}{2}I\omega^{2} = Rotational Kinetic energy of the pen

Where, I = m l 2 3 = I = \frac{ml^{2}}{3} = Moment of Inertia of pen about its bottom tip

Hence, by using work energy theorem,

(change in gravitational potential energy of pen) + (Rotational Kinetic energy of the pen) = 0

m g ( y 2 y 1 ) + 1 2 I ω 2 = 0 \therefore mg(y_{2} - y_{1}) + \frac{1}{2}I\omega^{2} = 0 where g = g = Gravitational acceleration = 9.8 m s 1 9.8 ms^{-1}

m g ( y 1 y 2 ) = 1 2 I ω 2 \therefore mg(y_{1} - y_{2}) = \frac{1}{2}I\omega^{2}

m g ( l 2 0 ) = 1 2 m l 2 3 ω 2 \therefore mg( \frac{l}{2} - 0) = \frac{1}{2}\frac{ml^{2}}{3}\omega^{2}

ω = 3 g l \therefore \omega = \sqrt{\frac{3g}{l}}

Let v = v = velocity of upper end of the pen when it hits the ground = ω l = \omega l = 3 g l l = 3 g l = \sqrt{\frac{3g}{l}} l = \sqrt{3gl}

= 3 × 9.8 × 15 × 1 0 2 m s 1 = 2.1 m s 1 = \sqrt{3 \times 9.8 \times 15 \times 10^{-2}} ms^{-1} = 2.1ms^{-1}

I too used the same royal method.

Niranjan Khanderia - 7 years, 1 month ago

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.yeah that is actually a royal method of solving this problem .......

ashutosh mahapatra - 6 years, 1 month ago

I also thought about this

N DS - 2 years ago

I used this method but still missed it once due to not converting the units - anyone else? Nice Problem!

Shreyas Balaji - 7 years, 1 month ago

can u tell why are you taking I=1/3 ml^2

Ayush Saini - 7 years, 1 month ago

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apply parallel axis theorem

Arijit Banerjee - 7 years, 1 month ago

But the question is asked about the velocity of the tip of pen.

Rohan Patil - 7 years, 1 month ago

Sorry other end of pen

Rohan Patil - 7 years, 1 month ago

What is the wrong about this method? .5mv(com)^2=mgl/2
v(com)=1.21=w( angular velocity).(l/2) w=16.16 So velocity of the end of the rod =wl=2.42

Swapnil Saha - 5 years, 8 months ago

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kinetic energy = translational kinetic energy + rotational one... you didn't calculate the later one

SB Antu - 5 years, 1 month ago
Drago Drago
Apr 21, 2014

simple..........g=ra (a=angular acceleration, acceleration due to gravity,r=.15) ,find a,then w * w=2 * a pi/4 (w =angular velocity,pi/4 =angular displacement) find w,then v=w r (velocity)

Jaivir Singh
Apr 22, 2014

BY THE CONSERVATION OF ENERGY mgl\2 = 1\2(I square of angular velocity ). THEN APPLY v = lw

Sudipan Mallick
Apr 21, 2014

apply work energy theorem considering the heigth of cm wrt table. mgl/2=1/2Iw^2. w=rt(3gl) putting all the values w =2.1

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