Perfecting The Square

Which of these numbers is a perfect square?

16 ! 17 ! 2 \dfrac{16! \cdot 17!}{2} 15 ! 16 ! 2 \dfrac{15! \cdot 16!}{2} 17 ! 18 ! 2 \dfrac{17! \cdot 18!}{2} 14 ! 15 ! 2 \dfrac{14! \cdot 15!}{2} 18 ! 19 ! 2 \dfrac{18! \cdot 19!}{2}

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10 solutions

Prasun Biswas
Apr 9, 2015

A generalized version for checking whether these type of expressions are perfect square or not is as follows:

n ! ( n + 1 ) ! 2 = ( n ! ) 2 ( n + 1 ) 2 \frac{n!(n+1)!}{2}=\frac{(n!)^2(n+1)}{2}

So, from this, it follows that the whole expression is a perfect square iff n + 1 2 \dfrac{n+1}{2} is a perfect square.

In this case n = 17 n = 17 only so 17 ! 18 ! 2 ! \frac {17! 18!}{2!} is the only perfect square.

It's great...

Fahim Khan - 4 years, 10 months ago

The same observation I too did.

Naren Bhandari - 3 years, 4 months ago

It's a new thing for me. Thank you for this knowledge.

Shardul Vinay Khanang - 2 years, 4 months ago
Danish Ahmed
Mar 22, 2015

17 ! 18 ! 2 = ( 17 ! ) 2 18 2 = ( 17 ! ) 2 9 \dfrac{17!18!}{2} = \dfrac{(17!)^2\cdot18}{2} = (17!)^2\cdot9

So the expression is a perfect square

Moderator note:

Despite showing that it is a perfect square, you should show that the other choices are not a perfect square for completeness sake.

By chance i made a hurry. So really i am from all sides. Let me learn.

prabir ray - 4 years, 7 months ago

so simple so brillaint ..

Ben Rais Anas - 1 year, 2 months ago

We can eliminate some options without having to evaluate. In order to get a perfect square:

  • We need to strip off the first term from the bigger factorial to make it the same as the smaller factorial.
  • This first term that we stripped off must be divisible by 2. This eliminates options B, D and E.
  • The result of dividing this first term by 2 must also be a perfect square. This eliminates A, and the correct answer is C.

You say the correct answer is "C"; But they say the correct answer is "D"! Who is correct?

Justin Patriarco - 3 years, 9 months ago

17 ! 18 ! 2 = 17 ! × 18 × 17 ! 2 = ( 17 ! ) 2 × 18 2 = ( 17 ! ) 2 × 9 = ( 17 ! × 3 ) 2 \frac{17!18!}{2}=\frac{17!\times 18\times 17!}{2}=\frac{(17!)^2\times 18}{2}=(17!)^2\times 9=(17!\times 3)^2

Therefore, 17 ! 18 ! 2 \frac{17!18!}{2} is a perfect square.

Moderator note:

Despite showing that it is a perfect square, you should show that the other choices are not a perfect square for completeness sake.

Tim Roy
Mar 15, 2016

The product of two perfect squares is also a perfect square. Since these factorials differ only one, we can make each numerator a perfect square by grouping the numbers: 17 ! 18 ! 2 = 17 ! 17 ! 18 2 = 17 ! 17 ! 18 2 \dfrac{17! \cdot 18!}{2} = \dfrac{17! \cdot 17! \cdot 18}{2} = 17! \cdot 17! \cdot \dfrac{18}{2} We can do this for each answer above, and then test whether our new fraction forms a perfect square. Only one answer does.

Carlton Johnson
Mar 24, 2015

17 ! = 1 × 2 × 3 ....17 & 18! = 1 × 2 × 3:....×18

so when you multiply these factorials together You get 1^2 × 2^2 × ...17^2 × 18

& 18/2 = 9 which is 3^2

Moderator note:

Despite showing that it is a perfect square, you should show that the other choices are not a perfect square for completeness sake.

Brandur Arnoarson
May 29, 2018

For a general formula of n ! ( n + 1 ) ! m \frac{n!*(n+1)!}{m} , where m is greater than 0 and less than or equal to n+1, you can imagine first expanding both factorials. Now take out one factor of m from either side. From the sets of n! and (n+1)!, you now have all the numbers from 1 to n twice, with the exception of a lonely m, as well as a factor of n+1. If (n+1)m is a perfect square, the whole fraction becomes a perfect square. In the case above, 18*2=36 is the only one that works

Ray Prati
Mar 31, 2018

If you look at the prime factorization of each answer, you will want the numerator to have a 2 to an odd exponent, such that when you divide by two, you get 2 to an even exponent, making that part of the prime factorization a perfect square. (For a number to be a perfect square, the prime factorization must have exponents of all even powers; so after the division by 2 if you are left with an odd exponent, it cannot be a perfect square). Luckily, only one of the answer choices fits this requirement, The (17!18!)/2 option.

This is because the larger factorial number in the numerator needs to have an odd power of 2 that the other factorial number does not contain. This will make the parity odd on the top (If it contained an extra even power, then it would not work, and if both numbers contained the new odd exponent of 2, then that would make it an extra multiple of 2, and would thus not work).

17!18! Works because 18 includes 9 * 2, which is an extra odd exponent of 2. None of the others work.

Silvia Tamburini
Mar 22, 2018

This was my way of thinking:

  • In this case, we have to go by trials and errors, but we don't want to calculate all this factorials. As you probably know, a factorial is really quick going to infinity, so numbers would probably be enourmous in this case.
  • So we'll need to simplify those expressions. At the nominator we always have this form: n ! ( n + 1 ) ! n! (n+1)! If we simply write it as n ! n ! ( n + 1 ) n!n!(n+1) , we already have a perfect square here: ( n ! ) 2 (n!)^2 .
  • The fraction is now: ( n ! ) 2 n + 1 2 (n!)^2 \frac{n+1}{2} . We know that n 2 m 2 = ( n + m ) 2 n^2 m^2 = (n+m)^2 , so if n 1 2 \frac{n-1}{2} is a perfect square, we can conclude for sure that the original number will be a perfect square too.

This method is useful because it translates the checking of perfect squares from the original numbers to simpler ones. This is the method in practice: 14 ! 15 ! 2 = ( 14 ! ) 2 15 2 \frac{14! \cdot 15!}{2} = (14!)^2 \frac{15}{2} is not a perfect square, because 15 2 \frac{15}{2} isn't even an integer.

With this method, we can check all of them and conclude that 17 ! 18 ! 2 \frac{17! \cdot 18!}{2} is a perfect square.

Rahul Shete
May 21, 2017

17!18!/2 =(17!)^2× (18)/2 for perfect sequar 18/2=9 must be sequar.

same as above

Qing Dong - 1 month, 1 week ago

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