Given any (measurable, non fuzzy, etc...) set of any size (could be any size infinity or any finite size), is its cardinality smaller that that of its power set?
(And yes, if you do get this question correct, I do expect you to post the proof of your result.)
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If X and 2 X had the same cardinality, let f : X → 2 X be a bijection. Consider the set S = { y ∈ X ∣ y ∈ f ( y ) } and find u ∈ X such that S = f ( u ) .
If u ∈ S then u ∈ f ( u ) and hence u ∈ S . On the other hand, if u ∈ S then u ∈ f ( u ) , and so u ∈ S . This contradiction shows that X and 2 X do not have the same cardinality.
Since the map x ↦ { x } is an injective map X → 2 X , we deduce that X has strictly smaller cardinality than does 2 X .