Pi Circuit Analysis

A π \pi -circuit consisting of 1 Ω \SI{1}{\ohm} resistors is connected to an ideal 6 V \SI{6}{\volt} DC source at one pair of terminals, and to a load resistance R L R_L at the other pair of terminals.

If 10 A \SI{10}{\ampere} of current is flowing from the source, what is the value of R L R_L in Ω ? \Omega ?


The answer is 1.00.

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4 solutions

Arjen Vreugdenhil
Jan 23, 2017

There is no need to work with formulas for equivalent resistance.

Full circuit: 10 A A at 6 V V .

The leftmost resistor (between j 1 j_1 and j 3 j_3 ) is in parallel with the rest. It has 6 V V and therefore 6 A A of current. For the rest of the circuit, this leaves 4 A A at 6 V V .

The top resistor (between j 1 j_1 and j 2 j_2 ) is in series with the remaining two. It has 4 A A of current and therefore a 4 V V potential drop. For the rest of the circuit, this leaves 4 A A at 2 V V .

The right 1 Ω \Omega resistor is parallel with the load. It has 2 V V and therefore 2 A A of current. This leaves 2 A A and 2 V V for the load.

The resistance of the load is therefore 2 V 2 A = 1 Ω . \dfrac{2 V}{ 2 A} = \boxed{1 \Omega} .

Excellent! I was hoping someone would solve it this way.

Steven Chase - 4 years, 4 months ago

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I agree this is a great innovative solution.

Rohit Gupta - 4 years, 4 months ago
Rohit Gupta
Jan 23, 2017

The resistors between j 2 , j 4 j2,j4 and c 2 , c 4 c2,c4 are in parallel. Their resultant R L 1 + R L \dfrac{R_L}{1+R_L} is in series with the resistor between j 1 , j 2 j1,j2 . This gives R = 1 + R L 1 + R L R=1+\dfrac{R_L}{1+R_L} .
Now, the voltage across the resistor between j 1 , j 3 j1,j3 is 6 V 6V . Therefore, the current through it will be 6 V 1 Ω = 6 A \dfrac{6V}{1 \Omega} = 6A . This implies the current thought the rest of the circuit of effective resistance R R will be A A .
Hence, we can write,
V = i R 6 = 4 ( 1 + R L 1 + R L ) R L 1 + R L = 1 2 R L = 1 Ω . \begin{aligned} V &=& iR \\ 6 &=& 4 \left(1 + \dfrac{R_L}{1+R_L} \right) \\ \frac{R_L}{1 + R_L} &=& \frac{1}{2} \\ R_L &=& \boxed {1 \Omega}. \end{aligned}


Prince Loomba
Jan 19, 2017

Equivalent resistance is 0.6 ohm. To get 0.6 with leftmost 1 ohm in parallel, other resistance should be 1.5, which is after combining with middle 1 ohm, so we get 0.5 ohm combining with rightmost 1 ohm in parallel. This means R is 1 ohm.

Chew-Seong Cheong
Jan 25, 2017

The equivalent resistance between c 1 c_1 and c 3 c_3 is given by:

R e q = 1 ( 1 + 1 R L ) = 1 ( 1 + R L 1 + R L ) = 1 ( 1 + 2 R L 1 + R L ) = 1 + 2 R L 1 + R L 1 + 1 + 2 R L 1 + R L = 1 + 2 R L 2 + 3 R L \begin{aligned} R_{eq} & = 1 || \left(1+1||R_L \right) \\ & = 1 || \left(1+\frac {R_L}{1+R_L} \right) \\ & = 1 || \left(\frac {1+2R_L}{1+R_L} \right) \\ & = \frac {\frac {1+2R_L}{1+R_L}}{1+\frac {1+2R_L}{1+R_L}} \\ & = \frac {1+2R_L}{2+3R_L} \end{aligned}

Now, we have:

R e q = 6 10 1 + 2 R L 2 + 3 R L = 0.6 1 + 2 R L = 1.2 + 1.8 R L 0.2 R L = 0.2 R L = 1 Ω \begin{aligned} R_{eq} & = \frac 6{10} \\ \implies \frac {1+2R_L}{2+3R_L} & = 0.6 \\ 1 + 2R_L & = 1.2 + 1.8 R_L \\ 0.2R_L & = 0.2 \\ \implies R_L & = \boxed{1} \ \Omega \end{aligned}

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