A π -circuit consisting of 1 Ω resistors is connected to an ideal 6 V DC source at one pair of terminals, and to a load resistance R L at the other pair of terminals.
If 1 0 A of current is flowing from the source, what is the value of R L in Ω ?
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Excellent! I was hoping someone would solve it this way.
The resistors between
j
2
,
j
4
and
c
2
,
c
4
are in parallel. Their resultant
1
+
R
L
R
L
is in series with the resistor between
j
1
,
j
2
. This gives
R
=
1
+
1
+
R
L
R
L
.
Now, the voltage across the resistor between
j
1
,
j
3
is
6
V
. Therefore, the current through it will be
1
Ω
6
V
=
6
A
. This implies the current thought the rest of the circuit of effective resistance
R
will be
A
.
Hence, we can write,
V
6
1
+
R
L
R
L
R
L
=
=
=
=
i
R
4
(
1
+
1
+
R
L
R
L
)
2
1
1
Ω
.
Equivalent resistance is 0.6 ohm. To get 0.6 with leftmost 1 ohm in parallel, other resistance should be 1.5, which is after combining with middle 1 ohm, so we get 0.5 ohm combining with rightmost 1 ohm in parallel. This means R is 1 ohm.
The equivalent resistance between c 1 and c 3 is given by:
R e q = 1 ∣ ∣ ( 1 + 1 ∣ ∣ R L ) = 1 ∣ ∣ ( 1 + 1 + R L R L ) = 1 ∣ ∣ ( 1 + R L 1 + 2 R L ) = 1 + 1 + R L 1 + 2 R L 1 + R L 1 + 2 R L = 2 + 3 R L 1 + 2 R L
Now, we have:
R e q ⟹ 2 + 3 R L 1 + 2 R L 1 + 2 R L 0 . 2 R L ⟹ R L = 1 0 6 = 0 . 6 = 1 . 2 + 1 . 8 R L = 0 . 2 = 1 Ω
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There is no need to work with formulas for equivalent resistance.
Full circuit: 10 A at 6 V .
The leftmost resistor (between j 1 and j 3 ) is in parallel with the rest. It has 6 V and therefore 6 A of current. For the rest of the circuit, this leaves 4 A at 6 V .
The top resistor (between j 1 and j 2 ) is in series with the remaining two. It has 4 A of current and therefore a 4 V potential drop. For the rest of the circuit, this leaves 4 A at 2 V .
The right 1 Ω resistor is parallel with the load. It has 2 V and therefore 2 A of current. This leaves 2 A and 2 V for the load.
The resistance of the load is therefore 2 A 2 V = 1 Ω .