Pie is Everywhere

Calculus Level 1

A bullet is formed by revolving the area bounded by the the curve y = ln ( x ) y = \ln(x) from x = 1 x = 1 to x = e x = e about the x x -axis.

It is then shot straight into a very thick wall (i.e. it does not pierce through the other side at all) making a closed cylindrical hole until it stops moving. Then the bullet is carefully extracted without affecting the hole at all, leaving an empty hole with a pointy end where the bullet once was.

The length of the entire hole is e + 1 e+1 . If the volume of the hole can be expressed as π i e , \pi i e, where i i is a constant, find the value of i i .


The answer is 1.

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1 solution

The radius of the base of the bullet is ln ( e ) = 1 \ln(e) = 1 and its length is e 1 e - 1 . So since the length of the entire hole is e + 1 e + 1 , the volume of the hole is the volume of the bullet plus the volume of a cylinder of length 2 2 and radius 1 1 .

The volume of the cylindrical part of the hole is then 2 π 2\pi , and the volume of the bullet is

1 e π ( ln ( x ) ) 2 d x \displaystyle\int_{1}^{e} \pi(\ln(x))^{2} dx .

We can solve this integral using the parts method. Let u = ( ln ( x ) ) 2 u = (\ln(x))^{2} and d v = d x dv = dx . Then d u = 2 ln ( x ) x d x du = 2\frac{\ln(x)}{x} dx and v = x v = x , and the integral then becomes, (ignoring the bounds for the moment),

π x ( ln ( x ) ) 2 2 π ln ( x ) d x = π x ( ln ( x ) ) 2 2 π ( x ln ( x ) x ) = \pi x(\ln(x))^{2} - 2\pi\displaystyle\int \ln(x) dx = \pi x(\ln(x))^{2} - 2\pi(x\ln(x) - x) =

π x ( ( ln ( x ) ) 2 2 ln ( x ) + 2 ) \pi x((\ln(x))^{2} - 2\ln(x) + 2) ,

where another application of the parts method was used to determine ln ( x ) d x \int \ln(x) dx . Evaluating this from x = 1 x = 1 to x = e x = e gives us a volume of

π e ( 1 2 + 2 ) π ( 0 0 + 2 ) = π ( e 2 ) \pi e*(1 - 2 + 2) - \pi*(0 - 0 + 2) = \pi(e - 2) .

Adding to this the volume of the cylindrical part of the hole gives us a total volume of e π e\pi , implying that the constant i = 1 i = \boxed{1} .

Perfect! Exactly how I did it too.

Michael Ng - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Thanks. Great question, Michael. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 7 months ago

I hate using integration by parts, therefore I attempted the Shell Method. Converting y = ln(x) into x = exp(y), but I didn't get the right answer. Can anyone solve it with Shell Method and get the same correct answer?

William Nathanael Supriadi - 3 years, 5 months ago

Made an error within the first step and the whole thing just collapsed

Joshua Szarowicz - 2 years, 3 months ago

I know something from that. if we subtracted dv = dx then we could get e = 5. But we are not done yet. I could sum v = 2. i = 3. & I = 2.

Am Kemplin - 1 month, 2 weeks ago

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