and are both transcendental numbers. Transcendental numbers are numbers which can't be roots of a non-zero polynomial equation with rational coefficients. Keeping that in mind, read the following statements.
. It is possible for to be a rational number in base .
. At least one of and is irrational in base .
. is an irrational number in base .
Which of these statements are correct?
Note : This problem is a part of the set "I Don't Have a Good Name For This Yet". See the rest of the problems here . And when I say I don't have a good name for this yet, I mean it. If you like problems like these and have a cool name for this set, feel free to comment here .
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Let's consider the statements one by one.
[ 1 ] Is it possible for π + e to be a rational number? It could be. The fact is: we don't know [yet]. It is still an open problem in analysis. As long as someone doesn't prove otherwise, it is very much possible for π + e to be a rational number. So, [ 1 ] is true.
[ 2 ] Notice that, π and e are the roots of this equation: x 2 − ( π + e ) x + π × e = 0 ⋯ ( ∗ ) .
Since, π and e are transcendental, they can't be the roots of a polynomial equation with rational coefficients. So, at least one of the coefficients of ( ∗ ) is irrational. That means at least one of π + e and π × e is irrational.
[ 3 ] This one's pretty well known. Johann Heinrich Lambert proved that π is irrational in the 1 8 th century. So, [ 3 ] is true as well.