Consider a function f : R → R defined as:
f ( x ) = ⎩ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎪ ⎧ ∣ x ∣ ∫ x 2 ln t d t a ∫ x e t sin t d t if x ≤ a if x > a
Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 . . . . . . a n be the values of a for which f is continuous throughout its domain.
Find
i = 1 ∏ n ( a i − 2 ) 2
Note: If you think there are no values of a satisfying the conditions, enter your answer as 999.
This problem is part of the set - Piecewise-defined Functions
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sirf hum dono ne solve kiya !!!from 5 months !! why don't you repost this problem or something....!?
@Jon Haussmann Sir , does integrating lnx from 0 to 0 make sense ? I am asking so because the function is not defined at x = 0
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I would say that you are integrating over a trivial interval, containing only a single point. So, we can say that the integral is 0, even if the function isn't defined there.
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Note that both ∣ x ∣ ∫ x 2 ln t d t and a ∫ x e t sin t d t are continuous for all real x . The only possible discontinuity is at x = a .
The function will be continuous at x = a if x → a − lim = f ( a ) = x → a + lim
Note that x → a + lim = a ∫ a e t sin t d t = 0 for all values of a . Also, x → a − lim is always equal to f ( a ) .
We must now find values of a such that f ( a ) = 0 .
f ( a ) = ∣ a ∣ ∫ a 2 ln t d t = 0 . When a = − 1 , 0 , and 1 , both limits of the integral are equal, therefore f ( a ) is zero. It is an exercise to the reader to show that there are no other solutions to the integral.
Finally, we have a 1 = − 1 , a 2 = 0 , a 3 = 1
i = 1 ∏ n ( a i − 2 ) 2 = ( − 3 ) 2 × ( − 2 ) 2 × ( − 1 ) 2 = 3 6 □