Piecewise Functions - 6

Calculus Level 5

Consider a function f : R R f : \mathbb{R} \rightarrow \mathbb{R} defined as:

f ( x ) = { x x 2 ln t d t if x a a x e t sin t d t if x > a f(x) = \begin{cases}\displaystyle\int\limits_ {|x|} ^{x^2} \ln t~ dt & \text{if } x \leq a \\ \displaystyle\int\limits_ {a} ^{x} e^t \sin t~ dt & \text{if } x > a\end{cases}

Let a 1 , a 2 , a 3 . . . . . . a n a_1, a_2, a_3 ...... a_n be the values of a a for which f f is continuous throughout its domain.

Find

i = 1 n ( a i 2 ) 2 \displaystyle\prod_{i = 1} ^ n (a_i- 2)^2


Note: If you think there are no values of a a satisfying the conditions, enter your answer as 999.


This problem is part of the set - Piecewise-defined Functions


The answer is 36.

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1 solution

Pranshu Gaba
Nov 29, 2014

Note that both x x 2 ln t d t \int\limits_ {|x|} ^{x^2} \ln t~ dt and a x e t sin t d t \int\limits_ {a} ^{x} e^t \sin t~ dt are continuous for all real x x . The only possible discontinuity is at x = a x = a .

The function will be continuous at x = a x =a if lim x a = f ( a ) = lim x a + \displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow a^{-}} = f(a) = \displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow a^{+}}

Note that lim x a + = a a e t sin t d t = 0 \displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow a^{+}} = \int\limits_ {a} ^{a} e^t \sin t~ dt = 0 for all values of a a . Also, lim x a \displaystyle\lim_{x \rightarrow a^{-}} is always equal to f ( a ) f(a) .

We must now find values of a a such that f ( a ) = 0 f(a) = 0 .


f ( a ) = a a 2 ln t d t = 0 f(a) =\int\limits_ {|a|} ^{a^2} \ln t~ dt = 0 . When a = 1 , 0 , a = -1, 0, and 1 1 , both limits of the integral are equal, therefore f ( a ) f(a) is zero. It is an exercise to the reader to show that there are no other solutions to the integral.

Finally, we have a 1 = 1 , a 2 = 0 , a 3 = 1 a_1 = -1, a_2 = 0, a_3 = 1

i = 1 n ( a i 2 ) 2 = ( 3 ) 2 × ( 2 ) 2 × ( 1 ) 2 = 36 \displaystyle\prod_{i = 1} ^{n} (a_i -2)^2 = (-3)^2 \times (-2)^2 \times (-1)^2 = \boxed{36} _\square

sirf hum dono ne solve kiya !!!from 5 months !! why don't you repost this problem or something....!?

Rushikesh Joshi - 6 years, 1 month ago

@Jon Haussmann Sir , does integrating lnx from 0 to 0 make sense ? I am asking so because the function is not defined at x = 0

Ankit Kumar Jain - 3 years ago

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I would say that you are integrating over a trivial interval, containing only a single point. So, we can say that the integral is 0, even if the function isn't defined there.

Jon Haussmann - 3 years ago

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okay , thank you sir.

Ankit Kumar Jain - 3 years ago

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