Possible?

1 1 2 1 3 1 4 1 5 1 6 1 7 1 8 1 9 1 10 1 11 1 12 = 0 \large 1 \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{2} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{3}\; \square \; \dfrac{1}{4}\; \square \; \dfrac{1}{5} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{6} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{7} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{8} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{9} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{10} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{11} \; \square \; \dfrac{1}{12}= 0

Can you fill the boxes with + and + \text{ and } - to make this equation true?

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10 solutions

Stephen Brown
Aug 31, 2017

Relevant wiki: Adding Fractions

The sum of these unit fractions comes out to 86021/27720; multiply the equation by 27720, and the problem requires you to separate 12 integers into two groups each adding up to 86021/2=43010.5, not an integer, which is obviously impossible.

Intuitively, you can quickly figure out that if one side has 1/7, there's nothing on the other side which can "cancel it out", as 7 is coprime with every other dominator. Similarly with 1/11.

Moderator note:

Two bits of trivia:

  1. If you take the 1 7 \frac{1}{7} and 1 11 \frac{1}{11} out and try to make all the denominators the same, the smallest possible value is 360. This fact along with the convenient closeness to 365 days in a year is why math historians think the Babylonians divided the circle in 360 parts (and used a base 60 number system), and why we still use 360 degrees in a circle.

  2. If this problem is given with integers rather than fractions, it becomes something much harder known as the partition problem which is typically phrased as: given a set of positive integers, divide it into two subsets so that their sums are equal. In computer science the partition problem is NP-complete although there are many special cases where it can still be efficiently solved.

For any combination of + or - the equation can be translated to 1 + (sum(1/j)) = sum(1/k) where j and k tow integers of complementary set of U = N – {0, 1} Trivially, for any subset of U, sum(1/k) < sum(1/n), n in 2 … +inf Or sum(1/n) < 1 (adding fraction of what remaining) The left side of the equation is > 1 and right side < 1

Amine Kechouindi - 3 years, 9 months ago

Maybe it is possible to make this "intuitive" proof more rigorous?

Agnishom Chattopadhyay - 3 years, 8 months ago

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This was done more rigorously in other solutions below.

Stephen Brown - 3 years, 8 months ago
Arjen Vreugdenhil
Sep 10, 2017

Relevant wiki: Adding Fractions

If this is possible, we can write 1 11 = a linear, integer combination of the other fractions . \frac 1{11} = \text{a linear, integer combination of the other fractions}. Now a linear combination (with integer coefficients) can only have denominators which divide the least common denominator of these other fractions; this least common denominator is 2 3 3 2 5 7 2^3\cdot 3^2\cdot 5\cdot 7 .

However, since 11 11 is not a divisor of this least common denominator, it cannot be expressed in this manner. Therefore the answer must be no.

the ans is no

Shivam U - 3 years, 8 months ago

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Yes. That is what Arjen has shown.

Agnishom Chattopadhyay - 3 years, 8 months ago
Brian Parma
Sep 11, 2017

Relevant wiki: Prime Numbers

Lets take the largest prime denominator 11 11 .

Now let L = lcm ( 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 , 8 , 9 , 10 , 12 ) L = \text{lcm}(1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,12) note: 11 11 is not present

If we multiply the equation by L L , we will have:

( L L 2 L 3 . . . L 10 L 12 ) L 11 = 0 (L \square \frac{L}{2} \square \frac{L}{3} \square ... \square \frac{L}{10} \square \frac{L}{12}) \square \frac{L}{11} = 0

Because of how we created L L , all of the terms in ( ) () will be integers, so any ± \pm combination of them is also an integer:

N L 11 = 0 N \square \frac{L}{11} = 0

But, since 11 11 is a prime not included in L L , 11 L 11\nmid L , so L 11 \frac{L}{11} is not an integer, and adding or subtracting it from any integer N N will not equal 0 0 .

E G
Sep 13, 2017

If i write each term under the same denominator (using the lowest common multiple for the denominator), each term is an even number except for 1/8 which will be the only even number. Hence no solution.

I understood your idea. Your intuition seems like the same as Stephen Brown's. The sum of those fractions are indeed 86021/27720, which is an odd number divided by an even number. But your solution doesn't induce the reader to the conclusion, you just throw it.

I believe you meant that the signal in front of 1/8 would always turn the total result into an odd number divided by an even number, which can never describe zero.

Therefore, no matter what you put in front of the other fractions, when you multiply each fraction by the lcm, you will always get a non-zero result.

Fernando Tsurukawa - 3 years, 8 months ago
Surbhi Gupta
Sep 14, 2017

1/2 + 1/4 = 1/2, Similarly, 1/3+1/6= 1/5+1/10=1/2, 2 of these gets cancelled out. 1 - 1/2 (remaining) = 1/2. This 1/2 +1/12 = 7/12. 7/12 + 1/7+ 1/8+ 1/9 + 1/11 can in no way arranged to give a zero.

Michelle Brown
Sep 16, 2017

Amateur here: I found the LCD and wrote out all of the fractions like you will see: 13860/27720 🔲 9240/27720 🔲 through 2520/27720 🔲 2310/27720 = 0

At that point, as I was looking at the mathematical sentence, I realized that I couldn't possibly do anything to the final fraction, no matter what I did to all of the other ones, to get that last one to equal zero. (FYI: My initial impulse was to subtract the fractions, prior to realizing that I was never going to be able to zero out both sides.)

I know that my solution isn't theoretically based, extremely sophomoric, and it's totally ok if you laugh at me. However, I did get the correct answer and I wonder if there is room for thinking outside of the box.

Matt Lord
Sep 14, 2017

A simple partity argument suffices, as well. Assume there is a solution. Multiply both sides of the equation by the LCM of the denominators, which is 2 3 3 2 5 7 11 2^3\cdot 3^2\cdot 5\cdot 7\cdot 11 . Reducing mod 2 gives 1 on the left and 0 on the right, a contradiction.

By Riemann Series theorem, if an infinite series of real numbers is conditionally convergent, then its terms can be arranged in a permutation so that the new series converges to an arbitrary real number or diverges. More generally, p positive real numbers followed by q negatives gives the sum ln(p/q), which is not zero.

John Baird
Sep 14, 2017

What you want to do is take one number and subtract several other terms to cancel it out, and repeat this until all terms are canceled out at 0. You can start with +1 - 1/2 - 1/3 - 1/6 = 0. However it becomes clear that you can't do anything to get rid of the 1/7 and 1/11 so the sum will always be a little off from 0

Donald Zacherl
Sep 12, 2017

The easier way to the think about this problem is as two infinite series of progressive terms n/n, 1/(n+1), 1/(n+2). The highest value will be a sum all positive numbers which approaches n/n + n/n, or 2. The lowest value will be a sum of negative numbers approaching n/n - n/n or 0. All solutions must fall between these values, therefore no solution equals 0.

I see this in the same light as Zeno's arrow. If you take one and continue subtracting ever smaller fractions you will never reach zero as there are an infinite number of fractions that will fit into 1.

Guy Thiebaut - 3 years, 7 months ago

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