Let p n denote the n th prime number . For example, p 1 = 2 , p 2 = 3 , p 3 = 5 .
How many pairs of positive integers ( a , b ) with a − b ≥ 2 are such that p a − p b is a divisor of 2 ( a − b ) ?
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It will be proven that a − b = 2 is the only value possible such that p a − p b ∣ 2 ( a − b ) . Let x = p a − p b .
(i) Consider a − b ≥ 4 . Obviously p a − p b ≥ 9 . Equality holds if and only if ( a , b ) = ( 5 , 1 ) with 2 ( a − b ) = 8 < 9 . Thus a − b < 4 .
(ii) Consider a − b = 3 Obviously p a − p b ≥ 5 . Equality holds if and only if ( a , b ) = ( 4 , 1 ) with 2 ( a − b ) = 6 > 5 . Thus the only possible value of x such that x ∣ 2 ( a − b ) is x = 6 .
x = 6 if and only if p a − p a − 1 = p a − 1 − p a − 2 = p a − 2 − p a − 3 = 2 . For k ≥ 2 , ( 2 , p k ) = 1 < = > p k ≡ 1 , 3 , 5 , 7 , 9 ( m o d 1 0 ) with p k ≡ 5 ( m o d 1 0 ) if and only if p k = 5 . If p b = 5 , p b + 3 = a = 1 3 < = > x = 6 . Thus p b = 5 .
For p b ≥ 5 , p b ≡ 7 ( m o d 1 0 ) . If p b ≡ 7 ( m o d 1 0 ) , x > 6 since p a ≡ 3 ( m o d 1 0 ) . Consider the following set T = 1 0 k + 7 , 1 0 k + 9 , 1 1 k + 1 , 1 1 k + 3 . By pigeon hole principle, there is m ∈ T such that 3 ∣ m . Thus there is no ( a , b ) such that x = 6 . Thus x > 6 ∀ ( a , b ) , a − b = 3 .
It implies that a − b = 2 . If a − b = 2 , x ≥ 3 . Thus x ∣ 2 ( a − b ) = 4 if and only if x = 4 . It is easy to check that x = 4 if and only if ( a , b ) = ( 4 , 2 ) . Thus the only solution satisfying the above divisibility is ( a , b ) = ( 4 , 2 ) .
Because we have the constraint a − b ≥ 2 this means we don't count twin prime pairs. I will prove that for non-twin prime pairs (except for a special exception I will get to), we have the inequality p a − p b > 2 ( a − b ) .
First, notice that we can completely ignore the prime 2 because if we have an odd prime minus an even prime then that is odd and won't divide the even number 2 ( a − b ) . Now consider the following numbers p a , p a + 1 , p a + 2 , . . . , p b . In this set it is clear that at most p a , p a + 2 , p a + 4 , . . . , p b can be primes. This means that the distance between two primes is p a − p b ≥ 2 ( a − b ) . This also means that equality occurs exactly when we have twin primes p a , p a + 2 or we have a twin prime triple like p a , p a + 2 , p a + 4 and we choose p b = p a + 2 = p a + 4 . Or twin prime quadruple, etc. So let's find these twin prime triples and quadruples etc.
It is clear that if there exists a twin prime quadruple (and up) there must exist a twin prime triple so let's scout for those. We are looking for a prime p such that p + 2 and p + 4 is prime. Let's assume that p > 3 . Then obviously p ≡ 1 m o d 3 or p ≡ 2 m o d 3 . In the first case, we would have that p + 2 ≡ 0 m o d 3 so p + 2 couldn't be prime. In the second case we would have p + 4 ≡ 0 m o d 3 which means p + 4 could not be prime. And if we now consider the case p = 3 we find the unique triple 3 , 5 , 7 . This implies there are no other triples, and because this is not a quadruple this means quadruples and quintuples (and up) don't exist.
So applying our previous deduction we know that we don't count twin primes like 3 , 5 or 5 , 7 but we can count 3 , 7 and indeed p 4 − p 2 = 7 − 3 = 4 = 2 ( 4 − 2 ) . And this must be the only solution because no more twin triples exist.
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First note that b < a . If b = 1 then p a − 2 ∣ 2 a − 2 but p a − 2 is odd, since a − b ≥ 2 implies that a > 1 and therefore p a must be odd. Hence, p a − 2 ∣ a − 1 but this implies, since both quantities are positive, that p a ≤ a + 1 which is impossible (this is easily seen by noticing p 3 = 5 and then seeing that p k ≥ k + 2 for every positive integer k ≥ 3 and a ≥ 3 ).
Therefore, there are no solutions with b = 1 so we can assume a , b > 1 , which implies that both p b , p a are odd. Note that there cannot be consecutive primes of the form p , p + 2 , p + 4 , p + 6 since that implies, by the pigeonhole principle, that one of them is divisible by 3 , and hence one of them must be 3 . The only possibility for this is that p = 3 , but that leads to p + 6 = 9 , which is not prime, and hence this situation is impossible. Since we have that for odd consecutive primes, p a ≥ p a − 1 + 2 then, all the equalities in p a ≥ p a − 1 + 2 ≥ p a − 2 + 4 ≥ p a − 3 + 6 may not occur simultaneously, or else we have 4 consecutive odd primes of the form p , p + 2 , p + 4 , p + 6 , which we proved to be impossible. Hence p a > p a − 3 + 6 and therefore, if a − b > 2 then p a > p b + 2 ( a − b ) . Since we want that p a − p b divides 2 ( a − b ) , we need that p a ≤ p b + 2 ( a − b ) , so we conclude any solution must satisfy a − b ≤ 2 , and hence a − b = 2 . Now, this implies that we have consecutive primes of the form p , p + 2 , p + 4 , implying one of them is divisible by 3 , and hence one of them is 3 . The only possibility for this is 3 , 5 , 7 which works, and note that 7 − 3 ∣ 2 ( 4 − 2 ) so p 2 = 3 and p 4 = 7 satisfy our condition.
Hence, the only solution is the ordered pair ( 4 , 2 ) , and thus there is 1 solution. □
Great problem, Hector! :)