Prime Dime Time!

Level 2

A dime is flipped 10 times. What is the probability that it lands on heads a prime number of times?

Give your answer to three decimal places.


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The answer is 0.524.

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1 solution

Geoff Pilling
Sep 21, 2018

The prime numbers from 1-10 are 2,3,5, and 7.

Pascal's triangle can help us visualize the possible outcomes of the coin flips...

Consider starting your flips from the top. A heads correspond to moving down to the right and a tails corresponds to moving down to the left.

If you look at the bottom row (10 flips), there are 45 ways 2 heads could have been flipped, 120 ways 3 or 7 could have been flipped, and 252 ways that 5 heads could have been flipped.

45 + 120 + 120 + 252 = 537 45 + 120 + 120 + 252 = 537

And there are 1024 1024 total ways the flips could have landed.

537 1024 = 0.524 \large \dfrac{537}{1024} = \boxed{0.524}


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If we let P n P_{n} be the probability that in n n flips a prime number of those flips are heads, then I'm getting P 20 0.325 P_{20} \approx 0.325 and P 30 0.329 P_{30} \approx 0.329 , (WolframAlpha has problems going past this, for some reason). Which of course makes me wonder how P n P_{n} behaves as n n increases and what lim n P n \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} P_{n} might be. I can't find any suitable references to "prime flipping", so you've come up with another novel question. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 2 years, 8 months ago

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Hahaha... I should have suspected that you'd have some way of making my sort of silly little problem much more meaningful! :^)

Looks like it approaches something between 1/e and 1/pi perhaps?

Geoff Pilling - 2 years, 8 months ago

On second thought, shouldn't P n P_n approach zero as n n\to\infty ? Since prime numbers get sparser and sparser?

Geoff Pilling - 2 years, 8 months ago

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Yeah, as I was thinking about it after I wrote my note I came to the same suspicion. It would likely approach the same π ( n ) n 1 ln ( n ) \dfrac{\pi(n)}{n} \approx \dfrac{1}{\ln(n)} curve as per the prime number theorem. I get P 40 0.296 P_{40} \approx 0.296 , compared to π ( 40 ) 40 = 0.3 \dfrac{\pi(40)}{40} = 0.3 , and compare P ( 30 ) = 0.329 P(30) = 0.329 with π ( 30 ) 30 = 0.333 \dfrac{\pi(30)}{30} = 0.333 ; close matches indeed even for relatively small n n . I'm not sure if I should be surprised at how close they are. Still an interesting problem to play around with. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 2 years, 8 months ago

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