Prime equals triple prime?

Calculus Level 2

f ( x ) = f ( x ) f'(x) = f'''(x)

For some infinitely differentiable function f ( x ) f(x) , it satisfies the above equation. Given the initial conditions

f ( 1 ) = 6 , f ( 1 ) = 5 , f ( 1 ) = 3 f(1) = 6, f'(1) = 5, f''(1) = -3

What is the value of f ( ln ( 42 ) ) f( \ln(42) ) ?

Details and Assumptions

f ( k ) , f ( k ) , f ( k ) f'(k), f''(k), f'''(k) denote the first, second, and third derivative of f ( x ) f(x) at x = k x=k respectively.

Image Credit: Wikimedia Taylor Series


The answer is 24.192.

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2 solutions

Caleb Townsend
Mar 8, 2015

Integrate f ( x ) = f ( x ) f'(x) = f'''(x) to see f ( x ) = f ( x ) + C f(x) = f''(x) + C The solution to the differential equation f ( x ) = f ( x ) f(x) = f''(x) is well known to be f ( x ) = A × e x + B × e x , f(x) = A\times e^x + B\times e^{-x}, but if you want a proof, I recommend studying second order homogeneous differential equations with constant coefficients. Now the solution to our original equation is the same as this one, but with an additional constant of integration. Therefore the solution is of the form f ( x ) = A e x + B e x + C f(x) = Ae^x + Be^{-x} + C You can find the first and second derivatives of this function, then set up a system of equations using the given values in the problem to solve for the constants. You should find f ( x ) = 1 e × e x 4 e × e x + 9 f(x) = \frac{1}{e}\times e^x - 4e\times e^{-x} + 9 Substitute x = ln ( 42 ) . x = \ln(42). f ( ln ( 42 ) ) 24.192 f(\ln(42)) \approx \boxed{24.192}

Can't we do

f ( x ) = n = 0 ( x 1 ) n n ! f ( n ) ( 1 ) (Taylor series of f ) = 6 + 5 sin ( x 1 ) ( 3 cos ( x 1 ) 3 ) = 5 sin ( x 1 ) 3 cos ( x 1 ) + 9 f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{(x-1)^{n}}{n!}f^{(n)}(1) \quad \text{(Taylor series of } f \text{)} \\ = 6+5\sin(x-1)-(3\cos(x-1)-3) \\ = 5\sin(x-1)-3\cos(x-1)+9

Jake Lai - 6 years, 3 months ago

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This would yield f ( x ) = f ( x ) f'(x) = -f'''(x) instead. Perhaps a similar question can be based on your function. :)

Brian Charlesworth - 6 years, 3 months ago

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Yup, forgot that series expansion for sin and cos had alternating signs ;-;

Jake Lai - 6 years, 3 months ago

Still, your method works, Comrade, mutatis mutandis ... just make the sine and cos hyperbolic. Very elegant method indeed!

You find f ( x ) = f ( 1 ) + sinh ( x 1 ) f ( 1 ) + ( cosh ( x 1 ) 1 ) f ( 1 ) f(x)=f(1)+\sinh(x-1)f'(1)+\left(\cosh(x-1)-1\right)f''(1)

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 3 months ago

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why do you write comrade everywhere ?? is it so to sound cool or something like that ??

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 5 months ago

Assume that f ( x ) f(x) takes the form of f ( x ) = A e k x + B e k x + C f(x) = Ae^{kx}+Be^{-kx}+C , then we have:

{ f ( x ) = A e k x + B e k x + C . . . ( 1 ) f ( x ) = A k e k x B k e k x . . . ( 2 ) f ( x ) = A k 2 e k x + B k 2 e k x . . . ( 3 ) f ( x ) = A k 3 e k x B k 3 e k x . . . ( 4 ) \begin{cases} f(x) & = Ae^{kx} & +Be^{-kx} & +C & ...(1)\\ f'(x) & = Ake^{kx} & -Bke^{-kx} & & ...(2)\\ f''(x) & = Ak^2e^{kx} & +Bk^2e^{-kx} & & ...(3)\\ f'''(x) & = Ak^3e^{kx} &- Bk^3e^{-kx} & & ...(4) \end{cases}

For f ( x ) = f ( x ) k = 1 f'(x) = f'''(x) \quad \Rightarrow k = 1 .

Therefore:

{ f ( 1 ) = A e + B e 1 + C = 6 . . . ( 1 a ) f ( 1 ) = A e B e 1 = 5 . . . ( 2 a ) f ( 1 ) = A e + B e 1 = 3 . . . ( 3 a ) \begin{cases} f(1) & = Ae +Be^{-1} +C & = 6 & ...(1a)\\ f'(1) & = Ae -Be^{-1} &= 5 & ...(2a)\\ f''(1) & = Ae +Be^{-1} & = -3 & ...(3a) \end{cases}

{ E q . 2 a + E q . 3 : 2 A e = 2 A = e 1 E q . 2 a : 1 B e 1 = 5 B = 4 e E q . 1 a + E q . 3 a : C = 6 ( 3 ) C = 9 \begin{cases} Eq.2a+Eq.3: & 2Ae = 2 & \Rightarrow A = e^{-1} \\ Eq.2a: & 1 - Be^{-1} = 5 & \Rightarrow B = -4e \\ Eq.1a+Eq.3a: & C = 6-(-3) & \Rightarrow C = 9 \end{cases}

f ( x ) = e x 1 4 e ( x 1 ) + 9 \Rightarrow f(x) = e^{x-1} - 4e^{-(x-1)} + 9

f ( ln ( 42 ) ) = 42 e 4 e 42 + 9 = 24.192 \Rightarrow f \left( \ln{(42)} \right) =\dfrac {42}{e}- \dfrac{4e}{42}+ 9 = \boxed{24.192}

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