Arithmetic probability

Out of 2 n + 1 2n +1 tickets numbered consecutively, three are drawn (without replacement) at random. The chance that the numbers on them are in an arithmetic progression is?

3 n 4 n 2 1 \frac{3n}{4n^2 - 1} 2 n 4 n 2 1 \frac{2n}{4n^2 - 1} 4 n 4 n 2 1 \frac{4n}{4n^2 - 1} n 4 n 2 1 \frac{n}{4n^2 - 1}

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

Let the 3 3 numbers chosen from the 2 n + 1 2n + 1 consecutive integers be arranged in ascending order. Then if they are in AP, there will be a minimum difference (magnitude) of d = 1 d = 1 between successive terms, and a maximum difference (magnitude) of d = n , d = n, (since 2 n + 1 2n + 1 is always odd).

There will be ( 2 n + 1 ) 2 (2n + 1) - 2 AP sequences with d = 1 d = 1 , ( 2 n + 1 ) 4 (2n + 1) - 4 AP sequences with d = 2 , d = 2, and in general ( 2 n + 1 ) 2 m (2n + 1) - 2m AP sequences with d = m . d = m. Thus the number of AP's that can be obtained is

k = 1 n ( 2 k 1 ) = 2 k = 1 n k k = 1 n 1 = n ( n + 1 ) n = n 2 . \displaystyle\sum_{k=1}^{n} (2k - 1) = 2\sum_{k=1}^{n} k - \sum_{k=1}^{n} 1 = n(n + 1) - n = n^{2}.

Now there are ( 2 n + 1 3 ) = ( 2 n + 1 ) ( 2 n ) ( 2 n 1 ) 6 = n ( 4 n 2 1 ) 3 \dbinom{2n + 1}{3} = \dfrac{(2n + 1)(2n)(2n - 1)}{6} = \dfrac{n(4n^{2} - 1)}{3} possible draws without restrictions, so the desired probability is

n 2 n ( 4 n 2 1 ) 3 = 3 n 4 n 2 1 . \dfrac{n^{2}}{\dfrac{n(4n^{2} - 1)}{3}} = \boxed{\dfrac{3n}{4n^{2} - 1}}.

Can i think in this way that I need two numbers between 1 & n+1 (both included), for forming an AP, so, I have n^2 chances of picking in that way... Automatically, my 3rd number will be selected to form an AP...

Arunava Das - 3 years, 2 months ago
Eshan Balachandar
Apr 23, 2015

In any 3 term AP, the first and third term must have the same parity (odd or even) If They do, there will be an integral second term which is the mean of the first and third. So, number of desired outcomes is equal to the number of ways of picking 2 numbers from all odd terms + number of ways of picking two numbers out of all even terms.

This would be Nc2 + N+1c2 which equals n^2

Rushikesh Joshi
Apr 20, 2015

Lol,put n=1 .!!!! . . . . . . . . . . .

Moderator note:

This solution has been marked wrong because you had only that it's true for n = 1 n=1 .

To avoid confusion the problem should state that the numbers are picked without replacement.

bobbym none - 6 years, 1 month ago

Log in to reply

Thanks, I've made addendum.

Brilliant Mathematics Staff - 6 years, 1 month ago

Hey! The fastest method to right ans is the best method .

Rushikesh Joshi - 6 years, 1 month ago

For n = 1 \displaystyle n = 1 we have probability 1 1 of obtaining numbers from an arithmetic progression. Out of the four choices only 3 n 4 n 2 1 \displaystyle \frac{3n}{4n^2 - 1} is consistent with the fact.

Sindri Saevarsson - 4 years, 7 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...