Probability revised

Given that a a and b b are any non-negative integers such that a a is variable and b b is constant, find the probability that a 0 ( m o d b ) a \equiv 0(\mod b)

Clarification: a 0 ( m o d b ) a \equiv 0(\mod b) implies that the remainder of a a is zero when divided by b b . E.g. 27 0 ( m o d 3 ) 27 \equiv 0(\mod 3) .

1 b \frac{1}{b} 1 0 1 a \frac{1}{a}

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2 solutions

Saksham Jain
Mar 22, 2018

We need numbers of the form a = b q a=bq a and b are integers After every b integers there is 1 number which can be written as a = b q a=bq Therefore probability is 1 b \frac{1}{b}

Braden Dean
May 31, 2018

We know that 0 a ( m o d b ) < b 0 \leq a \pmod{b} < b .
Therefore, the total amount of positive integer solutions for this inequality must be equal to b b .
Since we know that zero accounts for one out of all b b solutions,
The total probability must be equal to 1 b \frac{1}{b} .


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