A Beautiful Integral

Calculus Level 4

0 1 ln ( 1 x ) x d x \large \displaystyle \int_0^1 \dfrac{\ln (1-x) }{x} \, dx If the integral above can be expressed as A B π C -\dfrac AB \pi^C , where A , B A,B and C C are positive integers with A A , and B B being coprime integers, find A + B + C A+B+C .


The answer is 9.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

Trevor B.
Jan 15, 2016

We know that for x < 1 , |x|<1, n = 0 x n = 1 1 x . \displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n=\dfrac{1}{1-x}. Integrating this, we find that ln ( 1 x ) = n = 1 x n n . \ln(1-x)=-\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}\dfrac{x^n}{n}. Note that the constant of integration has been omitted because when x = 0 , x=0, ln ( 1 x ) = n = 1 x n n = 0. \ln(1-x)=-\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}\dfrac{x^n}{n}=0. Thus, we can say the following: ln ( 1 x ) x = n = 1 x n 1 n \frac{\ln(1-x)}{x}=-\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{x^{n-1}}{n} Finally, we can evaluate the integral. 0 1 ln ( 1 x ) x d x = 0 1 n = 1 x n 1 n d x = n = 1 x n n 2 0 1 = n = 1 1 n 2 \int_0^1\frac{\ln(1-x)}{x}\text{ }dx=-\int_0^1\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{x^{n-1}}{n}\text{ }dx=\left.\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{x^n}{n^2}\right|^1_0=-\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{1}{n^2} This is a familiar sum equal to π 2 6 . -\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}. Thus, { A , B , C } = { 1 , 6 , 2 } \{A,B,C\}=\{1,6,2\} and A + B + C = 9 A+B+C=\boxed{9} .

Moderator note:

Great explanation of how to use the MacLaurin series to evaluate an integral.

The interesting fact is that I got the question from that sum. I was trying to evaluate it.

Kishore S. Shenoy - 5 years, 5 months ago

Did the same way. Beautiful, indeed.

Pratyush Pandey - 4 years, 3 months ago

Basel's problem :)

Sahil Silare - 3 years, 3 months ago
Tanishq Varshney
Jan 14, 2016

The given integral is well known which is:

L i 2 ( 1 ) = π 2 6 \large{Li_{2}(1)=\frac{\pi^{2}}{6}}

where L i 2 ( x ) Li_{2}(x) is dilogarithm function

Aakash Khandelwal
Jan 14, 2016

Expanding ln(1-x) as -(x+x^2/2 +x^3/3....) Dividing by x and inegrating each of expressions within limits we get final expressions as -(1+1/4 +1+1/9... )Which is nothing but- pi^2/6. Hence A+B +C =9

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...