If L = n → ∞ lim n 1 j = 1 ∑ n cos ( 2 n j π ) find ⌊ L 1 ⌋ .
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I agree too!
No.. 1 is the correct answer.
L
=
π
2
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The question has been rectified ..Previously question was about finding ⌊ L ⌋ which is obviously 0.
Yes, the answer should have been [ 2/π ]= 0
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Shouldn't the answer be 0 since ⌊ π 2 ⌋ = 0