A Near Mirror

Calculus Level 2

0 e x 2 d x 0 e x 2 cos 2 x d x = ? \left\lfloor \frac{\displaystyle{ \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2}\, dx}}{\displaystyle{\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \cos 2x \, dx}}\right\rfloor= \ ?


The answer is 2.

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4 solutions

Haroun Meghaichi
Dec 25, 2013

Consider this function : f ( a ) = 0 e x 2 cos a x d x . f(a) = \int\limits_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \cos a x \ \mathrm{d}x. It is well defined for any a R a\in \mathbb{R} , differentiate it with respect to a a and integrate by parts to get that : f ( a ) = 0 x e x 2 sin a x d x = [ e x 2 sin a x 2 ] 0 a 2 0 e x 2 cos a x d x = a f ( a ) 2 . f'(a) = \int\limits_0^{\infty}- x e^{-x^2} \sin a x \ \mathrm{d}x = \bigg[\frac{e^{-x^2} \sin a x}{2}\bigg]_0^{\infty} - \frac{a}{2} \int\limits_{0}^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \cos a x \ \mathrm{d}x= \frac{-a f(a)}{2}. So : f ( a ) = a f ( a ) 2 f'(a)= \frac{-af(a)}{2} , by separation of variables we get that : ln ( f ( a ) ) = d f f ( a ) = a 2 d a = a 2 4 + C f ( a ) = f ( 0 ) e a 2 4 a R . \ln(f(a))=\int \frac{\mathrm{d}f}{f(a)} = -\int \frac{a}{2} \ \mathrm{d}a= \frac{a^2}{4} +C \Longrightarrow f(a)= f(0)e^{-\frac{a^2}{4}} \ \ \ \ \forall a\in \mathbb{R}. Therefore : 0 e x 2 d x 0 e x 2 cos 2 x d x = f ( 0 ) f ( 1 ) = e = 2 . \left\lfloor \frac{\int_0^{\infty} e^{-x^2} \ \mathrm{d}x }{\int_0^{\infty}e^{-x^2} \cos 2 x\ \mathrm{d}x}\right\rfloor= \left\lfloor \frac{f(0)}{f(1)} \right\rfloor =\lfloor e\rfloor = \boxed{2}.

I missed a minus sign in the third to last line, it should be : a 2 4 + C \frac{-a^2}{4}+C .

Haroun Meghaichi - 7 years, 5 months ago

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also in the last line a small mistake: it is f(2) not f(1).

ISMAIL AZAD - 7 years, 5 months ago

Hey Haroun, could you please explain how you got f 'a??

Ash Dab - 5 years, 9 months ago

Thanks a lot for the solution! Learnt a lot from it!

Karthik Kannan - 7 years, 5 months ago

pliz tell me hw f(o)=1

yohenba soibam - 7 years, 4 months ago

is this known as differentiating under the integral sign

Sampad Lahiry - 5 years, 9 months ago

We can also use the mclaurin series for cos2x and then gamma function for denominator.

Ayush Garg - 5 years, 2 months ago

this is the awesome solution and the sum is awesome

Souvik Sarkar - 5 years ago

What functions you have taken for by parts

Kumar Krish - 1 year, 10 months ago

F(2) not f(1)

Suliman Abdelwahid - 1 year, 10 months ago
Infi Circle
Dec 25, 2013

There are different ways of solving such mundane problem. Without thinking too much one can directly apply gamma function in its standard format. As for numerator the result is a 1/2(sqrt(pi)) and on the other hand , the denominator can also be converted into the closed form of a gamma function by applying a suitable " perfect square" trick. Then one can simply approximate cosine function as the real part of a plane wave exp(2ix). Finally, the denominator apart from 1/2(sqrt(pi)) will also contain "1/(e=2.71828)". And in the end, we end up with 2.71828. Since we have to calculate floor value so one just takes out 2.

This problem can also be evaluated by Laplace integral formalism and contour integral too.

I do not know, how to write here in proper math's symbols.

did the same!! thanks to gamma function!!

shuvam keshari - 5 years, 8 months ago

The integrand in the numerator describes half of a Gaussian with standard deviation σ = 2 \sigma = \sqrt 2 .

The integrand in the denominator describes that same Gaussian multiplied by cos 2 x \cos 2x , which remains close to 1 for small values of x x , and reaches zero for x = π / 2 1.1 σ x = \pi/2 \approx 1.1\sigma .

It is well-known that about 64 % 64\% of the mass of a Gaussian lies within σ \sigma from its center; in this case, between x = 0 x = 0 and x 1.5 x \approx 1.5 . The multiplication by cos 2 x \cos 2x decreases this percentage somewhat, and there is a negative contribution to the integral between π / 2 < x < π \pi/2 < x < \pi , but that is relatively small.

Therefore it is a reasonable guess that 0.33 < denominator numerator < 0.50 , 0.33 < \frac{\text{denominator}}{\text{numerator}} < 0.50, which is sufficient to conclude that the answer should be 2 \boxed{2} .

I did this by same...🐹🐹🐹

Satyam Tripathi - 4 years, 7 months ago

Sab hawa ho gaya😕🙄🤥😾

Kumar Krish - 1 year, 10 months ago

I did this by same…🐹🐹🐹

Am Kemplin - 1 day, 17 hours ago

The upper integral is a gaussian integral which can be evaluated using the gamma function evaluated at 3/2; then using the recursive formula for gamma function. It can also be derived using cartesian or polar corrdinates.

The lower integral can be evaluated using the integral of f ( z ) = e z 2 f(z) = e^{-z^{2}} along the contour which is a rectangle with corners a+0i, a+bi, -a+bi, -a+0i. Since f(z) is entire, by Cauchy-Goursat Theorem the integral of f(z) around the contour is zero. Get the sum of the horizontal and vertical legs of the contour.

Thanks for the solution Haroun

Kartik Soni - 7 years, 2 months ago

its really facinating.

Hasnain Nomani - 11 months, 2 weeks ago

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