Product factorization

Is it possible that the product of the first M M positive integers equals the product of some subsequent, consecutive integers (right after M M )?

Yes No

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Sándor Daróczi
Jul 10, 2017

Rewrite the equation as the following:

M ! = N ! M ! M! = \frac{N!}{M!}

( M ! ) 2 = N ! (M!)^2 = N!

We are going to prove that n ! n! cannot be a perfect square for n > 1 n>1 , so this equation has no solutions for N > 1 N>1 . Thus the only possibility is N = 1 N=1 and M = 1 M=1 , but N > M N>M implies that it is not a good solution so indeed this equation cannot be satisfied.

For the proof recall Chebisev's theorem, which states that there exist a prime p p for every n > 0 n>0 such that n < p 2 n n<p \leq 2n . Applying this to n = [ N 2 ] n=[\frac{N}{2}] there must exist a prime p p such that

[ N 2 ] + 1 p 2 [ N 2 ] [\frac{N}{2}] +1 \leq p \leq 2[\frac{N}{2}]

Since 2 p 2 ( [ N 2 ] + 1 ) > 2 N 2 = N 2p \geq 2([\frac{N}{2}]+1) > 2 \frac{N}{2} = N it follows that the highest power of p p dividing N ! N! is 1. This is known to imply that N ! N! can not be a perfect square.

Yuppers! Bertrand's postulate for the win

Pi Han Goh - 3 years, 11 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...