Pythagoras Wouldn't Like This

Does there exist odd integers x x and y y such that x 2 + y 2 x^2+y^2 is a perfect square ?

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3 solutions

Conor Donovan
May 3, 2016

Relevant wiki: Quadratic Diophantine Equations - Modular Arithmetic Considerations

x and y are odd, so they can be written as:
x = 2 n 1 x = 2n-1 ,
y = 2 m 1 y = 2m-1
where n and m are positive integers.
x 2 + y 2 = 4 n 2 + 4 m 2 4 n 4 m + 2 x^2 + y^2 = 4n^2+4m^2-4n-4m+2 .
This is equal to 2 mod 4 and is clearly an even number.
Let's assume it is a perfect square - call it z 2 z^2 .
Since this is even, then z is even also and can be written as z = 2 p z = 2p where p is a positive integer.
z 2 = ( 2 p ) 2 = 4 p 2 z^2 = (2p)^2 = 4p^2 which is equal to 0 mod 4 .

So x 2 + y 2 x^2 + y^2 can never be equal to z 2 z^2 . Therefore, x 2 + y 2 x^2 + y^2 is not a perfect square.

Well done. Pythagoras wouldn't like this because this meant the discovery of the irrational numbers!

Mateo Matijasevick - 5 years, 1 month ago

Please pardon my ignorance;what do you mean by 2 mod 4?

Yuki Kuriyama - 5 years ago

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That when you divide the expression by 4, the remainder is 2. For example, 6 is equal to 2 mod 4, 22 is equal to 2 mod 4... I invite you to read the corresponding wiki!

Mateo Matijasevick - 5 years ago

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Great ! Thanks a ton.

Yuki Kuriyama - 5 years ago

Nice solution!

Lisa Liu - 2 months ago
Arulx Z
Jul 22, 2016

For any n n ,

n 2 0 , 1 ( m o d 4 ) n^2 \equiv 0,1 \quad \left( \bmod \text{ 4} \right)

and for any odd k k ,

k 2 1 ( m o d 4 ) k^2 \equiv 1 \quad \left( \bmod \text{ 4} \right)

For odd x x and y y ,

x 2 + y 2 2 ( m o d 4 ) x^2 + y^2 \equiv 2 \quad \left( \bmod \text{ 4} \right)

However there cannot exist a square which is congruent to 2 modulo 4.

What does it mean "mod " in this case? I don't understand the expression "equal to 2 mod 4" or "equal to zero mod 4".

Domenico Altavilla - 3 years, 11 months ago

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Same here am. Lost

Idundun Sydney - 2 years, 9 months ago

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If we have something being equal to "2 mod 4" that just means we have remainder 2 after dividing by 4.

William Allen - 2 years, 1 month ago

Nice solution!

Lisa Liu - 2 months ago

We are talking of Pythagorean Triple. One leg of any primary triple is odd the other even. So any derived triple by multiplying by an integer will always have one leg as even. Two legs can be even in a derived triple if multiplied by an even integer. For primary triple, the hypotenuse is also always odd since the two legs square added is addition of odd and even.

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