Pythagorean Chaos III

If a a and b b are randomly chosen integers, with b < a b<a and z = a + b i z=a+bi , what is the probability the triangle with sides R e ( z 2 ) Re(z^2) , I m ( z 2 ) Im(z^2) and z 2 |z^2| is a primitive pythagorean triangle?

If your answer is of the form p π 2 \frac{p}{{\pi}^2} with p p integer, submit p p

Pythagorean Chaos II


The answer is 4.

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1 solution

Pedro Cardoso
May 25, 2018

First, let's write everything in terms of a a and b b :

R e ( z 2 ) = a 2 b 2 Re(z^2)=a^2-b^2

I m ( z 2 ) = 2 a b Im(z^2)=2ab

z 2 = a 2 + b 2 |z^2|=a^2+b^2

If a a and b b share a common factor k k , then it is clear that R e ( z 2 ) Re(z^2) , I m ( z 2 ) Im(z^2) and z 2 |z^2| will share a common factor k 2 k^2 . so a a and b b must be coprime.

The probability of this happening is 6 π 2 \frac{6}{{\pi}^2} . Why?

Now, from the second and third statements in Pythagorean Chaos II , we see that R e ( z 2 ) Re(z^2) , I m ( z 2 ) Im(z^2) and z 2 |z^2| will be coprime iff one of a a and b b is odd.

The probability of this happening given two coprime integers is 2 3 \frac{2}{3} . An intuitive way to see why (more formal reasoning in the comments) is noticing that a coprime pair could be one of three cases: even,odd, odd,even, and odd,odd and for every odd,odd pair, you could multiply each number by 2 2 separately to create an even,odd, or an odd,even pair.

So the probability we want is P ( Two random integers are coprime ) × P ( one of them is even ) = 6 π 2 2 3 = 4 π 2 P( \text{Two random integers are coprime}) \times P(\text{one of them is even})= \large \frac{6}{{\pi}^2} \cdot \frac{2}{3} = \frac{4}{{\pi}^2}

And the answer is 4 4 .

To see that the probability that a given coprime pair is odd-odd is 1 3 \frac{1}{3} , we use Bayes' theorem:

P ( odd-odd|coprime ) = P ( odd-odd ) P ( coprime ) P ( coprime|odd-odd ) P(\text{odd-odd|coprime})=\frac{P(\text{odd-odd})}{P(\text{coprime})}\cdot P(\text{coprime|odd-odd})

The probability that two randmom numbers are both odd is 1 4 \frac{1}{4}

The probability that two random numbers are coprime is primes ( 1 1 p 2 ) \prod_{\text{primes}}\left(1-\frac{1}{p^2}\right)

But the probability that two odd numbers are coprime is primes > 2 ( 1 1 p 2 ) \prod_{\text{primes}>2}\left(1-\frac{1}{p^2}\right)

we dont need to include the term ( 1 1 2 2 ) (1-\frac{1}{2^2}) because we know odd numbers can't have a common factor of 2.

So we get P ( odd-odd|coprime ) = p > 2 ( 1 1 p 2 ) 4 p ( 1 1 p 2 ) P(\text{odd-odd|coprime})= \large \frac { \prod _{ p>2 }{ \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ p^{ 2 } } \right) } }{ 4\prod _{ p }{ \left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ p^{ 2 } } \right) } } .

But factors on top and on bottom cancel, so we're left with:

1 4 ( 1 1 4 ) = 1 3 \large \frac { 1 }{ 4\left( 1-\frac { 1 }{ 4 } \right) } =\frac { 1 }{ 3 } .

Pedro Cardoso - 3 years ago

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