Quantum Physics - I

This problem is a little difficult version of the 1-D infinite potential problems.

If

A x ( a x ) = n = 1 c n 2 a s i n ( n π x a ) Ax(a-x) = \displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^∞ c_{n}\sqrt{\frac{2}{a}}sin(\frac{nπx}{a})

where f ( x ) = A x ( a x ) , 0 x a f(x) = Ax(a-x) , 0 ≤ x ≤ a is the function of a particle in a 1-D infinite potential box such that -

V = 0 f o r 0 x a V= 0~~ for~~ 0 ≤x ≤ a

V = f o r < x < 0 a n d a < x < V = ∞ ~~for~~ -∞< x< 0~~ and~~ a < x< ∞

Find [ 1000 c 3 ] [1000c _{3}]

where [ ] [~~ ] represents the greatest integer function.


The answer is 37.

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1 solution

Kevin Chiang
Jan 24, 2015

To find c n c_n , we need to solve the integral

c n = 2 a 0 a A x ( a x ) sin ( n π x ) d x c_n = \sqrt{\frac 2a} \int_0^a Ax(a - x) \sin (n\pi x) dx

To do that we need to normalize the wave function.

0 a f ( x ) 2 d x = 1 \int_0^a| f(x) |^2 dx = 1

And we get A = 30 a 5 A = \sqrt{\frac{30}{a^5}}

Plugging in that value of A and solving some integrals eventually leaves you with the equation:

c n = 2 15 ( 2 2 c o s ( n π ) n π s i n ( n π ) ) n 3 π 3 c_n = \frac{2\sqrt{15} (2 - 2cos(n\pi) - n\pi sin(n\pi))}{n^3\pi^3}

which has a s i n ( n π ) sin(n\pi) and c o s ( n π ) cos(n\pi) term in it.

For positive integers values of n, this result reduces to c n = 4 15 n 3 π 3 ( 1 ( 1 ) n ) c_n = \frac{4\sqrt{15}}{n^3\pi^3} (1 - (-1)^n)

For n = 3,

c 3 = 4 15 3 3 π 3 ( 1 ( 1 ) 3 ) = 8 15 27 π 3 0.03701 c_3 = \frac{4\sqrt{15}}{3^3\pi^3} (1 - (-1)^3) = \frac{8\sqrt{15}}{27\pi^3} \approx 0.03701

Floor of 1000 times that is 37 \boxed{37} .

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