This problem is a little difficult version of the 1-D infinite potential problems.
If
where is the function of a particle in a 1-D infinite potential box such that -
Find
where represents the greatest integer function.
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To find c n , we need to solve the integral
c n = a 2 ∫ 0 a A x ( a − x ) sin ( n π x ) d x
To do that we need to normalize the wave function.
∫ 0 a ∣ f ( x ) ∣ 2 d x = 1
And we get A = a 5 3 0
Plugging in that value of A and solving some integrals eventually leaves you with the equation:
c n = n 3 π 3 2 1 5 ( 2 − 2 c o s ( n π ) − n π s i n ( n π ) )
which has a s i n ( n π ) and c o s ( n π ) term in it.
For positive integers values of n, this result reduces to c n = n 3 π 3 4 1 5 ( 1 − ( − 1 ) n )
For n = 3,
c 3 = 3 3 π 3 4 1 5 ( 1 − ( − 1 ) 3 ) = 2 7 π 3 8 1 5 ≈ 0 . 0 3 7 0 1
Floor of 1000 times that is 3 7 .