2 2 3 2 4 2 5 2 ⋯ = ?
Clarification : e = n → ∞ lim ( 1 + n 1 ) n ≈ 2 . 7 1 8 .
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A much simpler way without using logarithms is to initially express the given expression (say S ) as,
S = i = 1 ∏ ∞ ( 2 i ! 1 ) ⟹ S = 2 i = 1 ∑ ∞ ( i ! 1 )
Now, using the expansion, e = 1 + i = 1 ∑ ∞ ( i ! 1 ) we can easily rewrite S as,
S = 2 e − 1
P.S - I got the idea to express S in that product form from Brian Charlesworth's solution in this problem. And I don't know why, but I am unable to mention him here!
I don't think it is immediately clear why the expression S equals that infinite product. I think this must first be proved by induction or otherwise.
Hi I reached your last step but didn't know what that series converged to so i used the calculator and got to 1/9! (and deduced that any further denominator bigger than 9! wont really affect the sum) which gave me 1.718281526 so I guessed its 1 below e. But i was wandering is there any way to get this without the calculator? Does it have to do with anything related to Macclaurins series or Taylor series?? Thanks :)
Yup; the Maclaurin series for the exponential function is e x = k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! x k . Plugging in x = 1 gives the desired series.
Ahhhh I see. Thanks for letting me know :)
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We solve this problem by taking the base- 2 logarithm of the given expression. Doing so gives us 1 + 2 1 ( 1 + 3 1 ( 1 + 4 1 ( 1 + 5 1 ( 1 + … ) ) ) )
The above expression is equivalent to 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + 5 ! 1 + ⋯ = e − 1
Therefore, the expression is just 2 e − 1 .