Andy picks a number uniformly from
{
0
,
1
}
.
Brandy picks a number uniformly from
{
0
,
1
,
2
}
.
Candy picks a number uniformly from
{
0
,
1
,
2
,
3
}
.
Dandy picks a number uniformly from
{
0
,
1
,
2
,
3
,
4
}
.
Endy picks a number uniformly from
{
0
,
1
,
2
,
3
,
4
,
5
}
.
What is the probability that these 5 numbers in that order are non-decreasing?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
There is likely a more elegant solution, but this is what I came up with...
I worked backwards, starting with Dandy and Endy.
Let D ( n ) = Probaility of non-decreasing numbers if Dandy chooses n .
D ( n ) = 6 6 − n
Now lets add in Candy.
Let C ( n ) = Probability of non-decreasing numbers if Candy chooses n .
C ( n ) = i = n ∑ 4 5 D ( n )
Now lets add in Brandy.
Let B ( n ) = Probability of non-decreasing numbers if Brandy chooses n .
B ( n ) = i = n ∑ 3 4 C ( n )
Finally lets add in Andy.
Let A ( n ) = Probability of non-decreasing numbers if Andy chooses n .
A ( n ) = i = n ∑ 2 3 B ( n )
This leaves,
A ( 0 ) = 2 1
A ( 1 ) = 6 0 7
So, the probability of non-decreasing results is:
P = 2 A ( 0 ) + A ( 1 ) = 6 0 1 1
There is a bijection to the catalan numbers . It's asking for C ( 6 ) = 1 3 2 .
I can add my solution.
Log in to reply
Ah yes. The Catalan numbers will likely be much more pedagogical! :^)
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
Let's consider the general problem, where the kth person picks from { 0 , 1 , 2 , … , k } .
Proof: One of the classifications of Catalan numbers, is that they are the number of ways to walk n blocks north and n blocks east, without crossing the diagonal line. This means that the line might touch ( x , x ) , but would not reach a point ( x , y ) with y > x .
Given such a walk, we can easily create a set of numbers picked, where the kth number is equal to the maximum y-value when x = k . We then have y ≤ x = k which satisfies the constraints of the problem. In this case, we ignore the walk on x = n + 1 .
Conversely, given any non-decreasing sequence that satisfies the constraints, we can convert it into a walk that doesn't cross the diagonal line, by letting the person walk to the point ( k , f ( k ) , walk east one square and then walk up (if any) to the point ( k + 1 , f ( k + 1 ) ) . After the final person, the walk goes from n , f ( n ) , walks east one square and then walks north to the point ( n + 1 , n + 1 ) .
We see that these 2 maps are inverses of each other. Thus, this establishes the bijection. □
Hence, the number of such sequences is C ( 6 ) = 1 3 2 . The probability is thus 6 ! C ( 6 ) = 7 2 0 1 3 2 = 6 0 1 1 .
Note: Can you explain why the walk to went for n + 1 blocks by n + 1 blocks instead of n blocks by n blocks? Hint: How does the end point affect the count?