Randomness maximised

A function f ( x ) f(x) is defined as
f ( x ) = { 1 if 0 x 1 0 otherwise f(x) = \begin{cases} 1 & \quad \text{if } 0 \leq x \leq 1\\ 0 & \quad \text{ otherwise}\\ \end{cases}

Consider n n random variables X 1 , X 2 , X n X_1 , X_2 , \dots \dots X_n such that f ( x ) f(x) is probability distribution function of each of the random variables i.e., X i ; i = 1 , 2 , , n \forall \text{ } X_i \text{ }; i = 1, 2, \dots , n , f ( x ) f(x) is the probability distribution function.

Let E n E_n denote the n th n^{\text{th} } power of the expected value of max { X 1 , X 2 , X n } \text{max} \{ X_1 , X_2 , \dots \dots X_n \} .

As n n grows larger, the expression E n E_n is found to converge to E \mathcal{E} .

Evaluate 1000 E \displaystyle \lfloor 1000 \mathcal{E} \rfloor .

Details and Assumptions:

  • It is to be noted that limit is evaluated for E n E_n after having obtained it for a general n n . It is not that the expected value of an arbitrarily large number of random variables is raised to that same arbitrarily large number to get E \mathcal{E} .


The answer is 367.

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2 solutions

Jp Delavin
Sep 14, 2015

From the pdf of X X , we know that X i U ( 0 , 1 ) X_i \sim \mathcal{U}(0,1) i \forall i . Given this, the cdf of Y n Y_n , where Y n = max 1 i n X i Y_n = \max\limits_{1 \leq i \leq n} {X_i} is:

F ( y ) = ( 0 y d t ) n = ( t 0 y ) n = y n , 0 y 1 F(y) = \left(\int_0^y dt\right)^n = \left( t |_{0}^y\right)^n = y^n, 0 \leq y \leq 1

The pdf of Y n Y_n is given by the derivative of the its cdf, which is f ( y ) = n y n 1 , 0 y 1 f(y) = ny^{n-1}, 0 \leq y \leq 1 .

Thus, E [ Y n ] = 0 1 n y n d y = n y n + 1 n + 1 0 1 = n n + 1 E \left[ Y_n \right] = \int_0^1 ny^n dy = \frac{ny^{n+1}}{n+1} \bigg|_0^1 = \frac{n}{n+1} . And given this, E n = ( n n + 1 ) n E_n = \left( \frac{n}{n+1} \right)^n .

E = lim n ( n n + 1 ) n \mathcal{E} = \lim\limits_{n\to\infty} \left( \frac{n}{n+1} \right)^n

= lim n ( 1 1 n + 1 ) n = \lim\limits_{n\to\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{n+1} \right)^n

= lim m ( 1 1 m ) m 1 = \lim\limits_{m\to\infty} \left( 1 - \frac{1}{m} \right)^{m-1}

= lim m ( 1 1 m ) m ( 1 1 m ) = \lim\limits_{m\to\infty} \frac{\left( 1 - \frac{1}{m} \right)^m}{\left( 1 - \frac{1}{m} \right)}

= e 1 1 = 1 e = \frac{e^{-1}}{1} = \frac{1}{e}

Thus, 1000 E = 1000 e = 367 \lfloor 1000 \mathcal{E} \rfloor = \lfloor \frac{1000}{e} \rfloor = 367 .

Without loss of generality let us consider the case when :- X n > X n 1 > X n 2 > . . . . . > X 2 > X 1 \displaystyle X_{n}>X_{n-1}>X_{n-2}>.....>X_{2}>X_{1}

In this case max { X 1 , X 2 . . . X n } = X n \displaystyle \text{max} \{X_{1},X_{2}...X_{n}\}=X_{n}

Now calculating the expected value we have :- 0 1 X 1 1 X 2 1 . . . . . . X n 1 1 X n d X n d X n 1 . . . . d X 3 d X 2 d X 1 = n ( n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle \int_{0}^{1}\int_{X_{1}}^{1}\int_{X_{2}}^{1}......\int_{X_{n-1}}^{1} X_{n}\,dX_{n}\,dX_{n-1}\,....\,dX_{3}\,dX_{2}\,dX_{1}=\frac{n}{(n+1)!}

(The integration is not very difficult. You can maybe take the case for n= 3 or 4 and then prove by induction).

Now there are n ! n! such ordered n-tuples of X 1 , X 2 . . . X n X_{1},X_{2}...X_{n} . So there are n ! n! ways to arrange them in descending order. Each of them will have equal probabilities and hence equal expected values for the maximum of the n random variables. Hence by total probability we have the expected value is n ! n ( n + 1 ) ! = n n + 1 \displaystyle n!\cdot \frac{n}{(n+1)!} = \frac{n}{n+1} .

So raising it to the nth power and taking the limit as n n\to\infty we have the answer as 1 e \displaystyle \frac{1}{e} .

(Note we can also do it by considering the minimum of the n variables . In that case the integral would be a little easier. Then we can just substract it from 1 to get the expected value of maximum of n variables.)

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