Is the following statement true or false:
Every positive rational number can be written as a quotient of products of factorials of (not necessarily distinct) primes. For example:
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First we can show that all prime numbers can be written as a quotient of products of factorials by induction. The first prime number, 2 , is equal to 2 ! Then assuming this property is true for all prime numbers p n , p n + 1 is also true, because p n + 1 = ( p n + 1 − 1 ) ! p n + 1 ! , and ( p n + 1 − 1 ) ! can be factored by prime numbers smaller than p n + 1 , and those prime numbers (by assumption) can be written as a quotient of products of factorials.
Since every rational number can be written as a quotient of products of prime numbers, and every prime number can be written as a quotient of products of factorials, it follows that every rational number can be written as a quotient of products of factorials, which makes the statement true .