Relativity

A clever race of Aliens has created an ingenious method of acceleration.

Spaceship 1 travels at 1 2 c \frac{1}{2}c relative to their home planet.

Then, spaceship 2 is launched from spaceship 1 and travels at 1 4 c \frac{1}{4}c relative to spaceship 1.

This process continues, with spaceship n n launched from spaceship n 1 n-1 and spaceship n n travels at ( 1 2 ) n c \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^nc relative to spaceship n 1 n-1 .

Let v n v_n be the velocity of spaceship n n relative to the home planet. Find lim n v n c . \lim_{n \to \infty}\frac{v_n}{c} .


The answer is 0.7839236595945458.

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2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Jun 26, 2016

For motion in one dimension, if U U is the speed of B B relative to A A , while V V is the speed of C C relative to B B , then the speed of C C relative to A A is W W , where tanh 1 W c = tanh 1 U c + tanh 1 V c \tanh^{-1}\tfrac{W}{c} \; =\; \tanh^{-1}\tfrac{U}{c} + \tanh^{-1}\tfrac{V}{c} Thus, for this problem. we have tanh 1 v c = n = 1 tanh 1 2 n = 1 2 n = 1 ln ( 1 + 2 n 1 2 n ) = 1 2 ln ( n = 1 1 + 2 n 1 2 n ) = 1 2 ln ( ( 1 , 1 2 ) 2 ( 1 2 , 1 2 ) ) \tanh^{-1}\tfrac{v}{c} \; = \; \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \tanh^{-1}2^{-n} \; = \; \tfrac12\sum_{n=1}^\infty \ln\left(\frac{1 + 2^{-n}}{1 - 2^{-n}}\right) \; = \; \displaystyle \tfrac12\ln\left(\prod_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1+2^{-n}}{1 - 2^{-n}}\right) \; = \; \tfrac12\ln\left(\frac{(-1,\frac12)_\infty}{2(\frac12,\frac12)_\infty}\right) using the q q -Pochhammer symbols. Thus v c = tanh ( 1 2 ln ( ( 1 , 1 2 ) 2 ( 1 2 , 1 2 ) ) ) = ( 1 , 1 2 ) 2 ( 1 2 , 1 2 ) ( 1 , 1 2 ) + 2 ( 1 2 , 1 2 ) = 0.783924... \tfrac{v}{c} \; = \; \tanh\left(\tfrac12\ln\left(\frac{(-1,\frac12)_\infty}{2(\frac12,\frac12)_\infty}\right)\right) \; =\; \frac{(-1,\frac12)_\infty - 2(\frac12,\frac12)_\infty}{(-1,\frac12)_\infty + 2(\frac12,\frac12)_\infty} \; = \; \boxed{0.783924...}

The formula for relativistic velocity addition is: v = u + v 1 + u v c 2 v^\prime=\frac{u+v}{1+\frac{uv}{c^2}}

To make things less messy, let a n = v n c a_n=\frac{v_n}{c} . Thus, we can derive that

a 1 = 1 2 a n = a n 1 + 1 2 n 1 + ( a n 1 ) 1 2 n a_1=\frac{1}{2}\\a_n=\frac{a_{n-1}+\frac{1}{2}^n}{1+(a_n-1)\frac{1}{2}^n}

This rapidly converges to 0.7839236595945458.

Is there a closed form?

Anupam Nayak - 4 years, 11 months ago

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